ECT Works of Law and Works of Grace, Is That Biblical?

turbosixx

New member
Here we can see the gospel which Peter preached to non-Christians:

"Then he called his twelve disciples together, and gave them power and authority over all devils, and to cure diseases. And he sent them to preach the kingdom of God, and to heal the sick...And they departed, and went through the towns, preaching the gospel, and healing every where" (Lk.9:1-2,6; KJV).

The facts reveal that when they were preaching that gospel the Twelve were not even aware the the Lord Jesus was going to die. After being given that command and after preaching that gospel the transgiguration followed (Lk.9:29-36; Mk.9:2-13). Then after the Twelve preached the gospel of the kingdom and after the transfiguration we read the following exchange between the Lord Jesus and the Twelve:

"They left that place and passed through Galilee. Jesus did not want anyone to know where they were, because he was teaching his disciples. He said to them, 'The Son of Man is going to be delivered into the hands of men. They will kill him, and after three days he will rise.' But they did not understand what he meant and were afraid to ask him about it" (Mk.9:30-32).​

The facts reveal that the Twelve did not even know He was going to die as late as shortly before the Cross:

"Jesus took the Twelve aside and told them, 'We are going up to Jerusalem, and everything that is written by the prophets about the Son of Man will be fulfilled. He will be delivered over to the Gentiles. They will mock him, insult him and spit on him; they will flog him and kill him. On the third day he will rise again.' The disciples did not understand any of this. Its meaning was hidden from them, and they did not know what he was talking about"
(Lk.18:31-34).​
I agree with your facts but I suggest you consider what they were preaching at this time BEFORE Jesus's DBR.
When we read the same account in Matthew 10 we see what they were instructed to preach.
Matt. 10:7 And proclaim as you go, saying, ‘The kingdom of heaven is at hand.’

At this time the preaching was not looking back to the cross but forward to the cross but it wasn't time to tell the people about the cross.
In Luke 9 you skipped the verses where Jesus strictly told them to tell no one about His DBR.
Luke 9:21 And he strictly charged and commanded them to tell this to no one, 22 saying, “The Son of Man must suffer many things and be rejected by the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and on the third day be raised.”

These facts prove conclusively that the gospel which the Twelve were preaching at Luke 9:6 was not the same gospel which Paul referred to in the following way:

"For the message of the cross, is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God"
(1 Cor.1:18.).​

I figured Clete knew what sermons I was talking about so I didn't state them for him. The sermons I'm referring to are Peters sermon in Acts 2 and Paul's in Acts 13. These sermons are looking back to the cross. They are the exact same sermon. If they are not, please point out why you think they're not.

You didn't address baptizing believers. Paul baptized the believers on all of his journeys. In his last recorded conversion he baptized the believers. Just like the 12 and just like Jesus instructed the 12 on how to make a Christian.
Matt. 28:19 Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,

The preaching is the same and baptizing the believers is the same. Where is the difference in what Peter and Paul preached and the baptizing of those being converted?

Your 1 Cor. 1:18 comment is written to people who have ALREADY been converted. They were baptized at their conversion whether by Paul or others.
1 Cor. 1:13 Is Christ divided? Was Paul crucified for you? Or were you baptized in the name of Paul?

Thanks for your comments
 
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Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
I’m not saying this to be accusatory but your post seem to be emotional (possibly angry) and I feel because of that you’re not giving me logical arguments to my points.
Not angry, annoyed!

And I've responded directly to every single word, sentence by sentence with direct and substantive counter argument that have almost universally been completely ignored by you!

If you want to get me angry, just continue down the road of hypocrisy and we'll get there quickly.

That’s how it looks from my viewpoint.
Who cares what "it looks from my viewpoint"?

The entire discussion is all still here for the whole world to read, T6. Just go back and read it again and see if even you can think that you're the one being more responsive.

For instance, when I suggested that God can interchange one of the 12 apostles for Paul in order keep the number at 12, you said What? You mean for no reason? You did a great job in showing the importance of the number 12. If God wanted to include Paul in the 12 names on the foundation, He can do it.
No, He absolutely cannot! Not and continue to be the consistent God that He has been since eternity past.

Do you really not think through the things you say at all?

If God could just arbitrarily interchange apostles for no reason at all, as your hypothesis suggests, then on what basis would any of the Twelve Apostles trust God to keep His promises toward them about anything else? If the Twelve can't trust God then why can you?

God is not arbitrary, T6! He does things for a reason. Your grasping at theological straws is devastating not just to your own doctrinal coherence but to the coherence of the entire Christian faith!

We have a biblical precedent for that. I shortened this to show the 12 tribes without taking up a lot of space.

Gen. 49:2 “Assemble and listen, O sons of Jacob,
listen to Israel your father.
3 “Reuben, you are my firstborn,
5 “Simeon and Levi are brothers;
8 “Judah, your brothers shall praise you;
13 “Zebulun shall dwell at the shore of the sea;
14 “Issachar is a strong donkey,
16 “Dan shall judge his people
19 “Raiders shall raid Gad,
20 “Asher's food shall be rich,
21 “Naphtali is a doe let loose
22 “Joseph is a fruitful bough,
27 “Benjamin is a ravenous wolf,
28 All these are the twelve tribes of Israel.


Now when we look at Rev. 7.
4 And I heard the number of the sealed, 144,000, sealed from every tribe of the sons of Israel:
5 12,000 from the tribe of Judah were sealed,
12,000 from the tribe of Reuben,
12,000 from the tribe of Gad,
6 12,000 from the tribe of Asher,
12,000 from the tribe of Naphtali,
12,000 from the tribe of Manasseh,
7 12,000 from the tribe of Simeon,
12,000 from the tribe of Levi,
12,000 from the tribe of Issachar,
8 12,000 from the tribe of Zebulun,
12,000 from the tribe of Joseph,
12,000 from the tribe of Benjamin were sealed.


Here is solid biblical evidence that God has interchanged Dan with Manasseh. If He did it for the tribes in order to keep the number at 12, how can you say He will not do the same for the apostles?
Look, it's pretty clear who's being emotional here and it isn't me. This example proves MY POINT, not yours and all it takes to see it is a little bit of knowledge about biblical history.

It isn't just Dan that's missing from the Revelation list, Ephraim is missing as well (See the list of the tribes given in Numbers 1).

Both the tribe of Dan and the tribe of Ephraim were removed because they rebelled against God and worshiped idols.

Judges 18:30 Then the children of Dan set up for themselves the carved image; and Jonathan the son of Gershom, the son of Manasseh, and his sons were priests to the tribe of Dan until the day of the captivity of the land. 31 So they set up for themselves Micah’s carved image which he made, all the time that the house of God was in Shiloh.

Hosea 4:17 “Ephraim is joined to idols,
Let him alone.​

Indeed, the entire nation of Israel would have been completely wiped totally out except for Moses because of idolatry if not for Moses talking God out of it.

Exodus 32: 9 And the Lord said to Moses, “I have seen this people, and indeed it is a stiff-necked people! 10 Now therefore, let Me alone, that My wrath may burn hot against them and I may consume them. And I will make of you a great nation.”

11 Then Moses pleaded with the Lord his God, and said: “Lord, why does Your wrath burn hot against Your people whom You have brought out of the land of Egypt with great power and with a mighty hand? 12 Why should the Egyptians speak, and say, ‘He brought them out to harm them, to kill them in the mountains, and to consume them from the face of the earth’? Turn from Your fierce wrath, and repent from this harm to Your people. 13 Remember Abraham, Isaac, and Israel, Your servants, to whom You swore by Your own self, and said to them, ‘I will multiply your descendants as the stars of heaven; and all this land that I have spoken of I give to your descendants, and they shall inherit it forever.’ ” 14 So the Lord repented from the harm which He said He would do to His people.​

And indeed, it is because of unbelief that God cut Israel off (Romans 11:20 and elsewhere) and did not give them their kingdom shortly after the ascension of Jesus Christ. Paul cites Jeremiah 18 as the principle by which God decided to cut off Israel. Jeremiah 18 may, in fact, be the single most important chapter in the whole bible. Here's the primary point the chapter makes...

Jeremiah 18: 7 The instant I speak concerning a nation and concerning a kingdom, to pluck up, to pull down, and to destroy it, 8 if that nation against whom I have spoken turns from its evil, I will repent of the disaster that I thought to bring upon it. 9 And the instant I speak concerning a nation and concerning a kingdom, to build and to plant it, 10 if it does evil in My sight so that it does not obey My voice, then I will repent concerning the good with which I said I would benefit it.​


Now what's the point of having gone through all that?

The point is that GOD DOES THINGS FOR A REASON!!!! Which has been my point all along.

God did not simply decide for some arbitrary reason to drop the tribe of Dan and replace it with Menasseh. HE DID NOT DO THAT! Dan would still be a tribe of Israel today if they had obeyed God and not rebelled and worshiped idols.

Which of the Twelve Apostle rebelled against God, T6? There was one! It was Judas Iscariot. The response to which was "Let another take his office.", which was done. The remaining eleven apostles which had been given authority by Jesus Himself to act in His absence even to the point of forgiving and/or the retention of sins (John 20:21-23) and they, after much prayer chose two and cast lots (Proverbs 18:18) to see which of those two God approved. The lot fell to Matthias. His validity as one of the Twelve as further confirmed on the Day of Pentecost when all Twelve were filled by the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:1-4).

Now, which of those twelve fell into disbelief, T6? Because if you want to think you have biblical support for one of them being replaced by Paul then that's the case you're going to have to make. Otherwise, you're just blowing smoke and grasping at any theological straw you can find in order to maintain the biblically baseless idea that there are thirteen men who's names are going to be on the twelve foundations of the New Jerusalem and thirteen men sitting on twelve thrones ruling over it.

Eph. 2: 19 So then you are no longer strangers and aliens, but you are fellow citizens with the saints and members of the household of God, 20 built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Christ Jesus himself being the cornerstone,
We have more than one apostle here. From your point of view, how many and which ones?
The Twelve apostles are still apostles, T6. I don't understand what you're asking me here.

Israel has (to this day) twelve and only twelve apostles. Paul is not, nor has he ever been, nor will he ever be, an apostle to the nation of Israel. He is the singular and only apostle to the Body of Christ.

So there are a total of thirteen apostles but it isn't a single group of thirteen, it is one group of twelve and a separate "group" of one. It isn't 12 plus 1, it's 12 and 1.

Further, Israel's calling is Earthly while ours is Heavenly. It is Israel that will inherit the New Earth and the TWELVE apostles will rule over the TWELVE tribes of Israel, which will clearly be reestablished, from the New Jerusalem which will have each of their names on one of the twelve foundations of the city.

But it was Israel that came first, not the Body. The same Christ saves both Jew and Gentile and whether one was saved under this dispensation or the previous one, we are all members of the household of God of which Christ is the chief cornerstone. Paul isn't saying that we've all been made member of the nation of Israel, which is the only point I can imagine you're attempting to imply here. On the contrary, it's the Jews who have been made like Gentiles who now all have the same opportunity for membership in that household. There is now no longer any advantage to being an Israelite. There is no longer any corporate relationship with God available through the nation of Israel. Now that relationship is available to all by grace through faith in Christ.

But God didn't cut ALL of Israel off. He didn't cut off those who believed. The Twelve and their followers who were saved under the "Kingdom Gospel" (i.e. the dispensation of law) remained under that dispensational program until their physical death, for the gifts and the calling of God are irrevocable. (Rom. 11:29 also 1 Corinthians 7:17-20). And so, for a time, there were two groups of believers. One was ministered to from Jerusalem while Paul went to the whole rest of the world.

Galatians 2:9 9 and when James, Peter, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised.​

If all you are going to do is give me your passionate opinion on what I’m not seeing or what I’m doing wrong, I think we have reached a stopping point.
I've done far more than that and you know it. I've made directly relevant and substantively biblical arguments throughout. NONE of which you have responded to in any meaningful way except to suggest that God could just arbitrarily drop one apostle for another.

As much as I value your input, your opinion means nothing to me without scriptural support.
Which I have given, repeatedly.

I know you call it “text proofing” but scripture is where we find the truth.
No, I do not call it proof-texting.

Good grief! How many times do you want me to repeat the fact that I do not have any problem with someone having a proof text for some position they hold? That is not the point! The point is that you CANNOT BUILD A DOCTRINAL SYSTEM BASED ON PROOF-TEXTING!

Do you remember when I mentioned (probably on a different thread) how just about all the books you'll find on any number of different theological subjects will basically have the same format, regardless of which side of the issue the book is intended to support? If you have two books about eternal security, for example, one arguing for it and the other against it, both books will have roughly the same format. Each will spend 80% of it's pages focusing on it's collection of proof texts while the last portion of the book (usually past what most readers will make it through) is spent explaining how the problem texts don't mean what they seem to mean. That is the way 90+% of the Christian world does their theology. They take a subject, look up all the relevant biblical material and pick a side to take literally and a side to explain away. This bottom up approach (i.e. forming a big picture based on a collection of details) is what they do! That's what you do! Whether you think that's what you do or not, this thread alone is proof enough that it is what you do.

In other words, you have no over-arching premise that has been intentionally thought through and understood which informs your reading of scripture and your understanding of doctrine as a whole. You simply have a collection of doctrines that you hold to and you have learned how those specific doctrines are defended. But there's no thread that runs through and holds them all together as a cohesive integrated whole.

And please understand that that is not said to be insulting. I was in that exact place for decades! I totally loved God and was totally saved and a totally legitimate member of the Body of Christ who loved the bible and read it all the time and did bible studies and watched Christian television and wanted constantly to better understand God and His word. And I'm absolutely convinced that all of that is just as true of you as it was of me when I thought the way you do now.

What I was always doing was looking for a better, more complete and eloquent way of understanding individual doctrines. In other words, given a particular doctrine, my position on that doctrine would have been whichever position I had heard the best argument for up to that point in my life. And while I held to some doctrines more strongly than others, I wasn't married to any particular side of any disputable issue. If you could present to me an argument that I found more compelling, it was time for me to change my doctrine and I did so.

When I was young that translated into my holding all kinds of what I now know to have been crazy positions on all sorts of things. I remember a time when nearly all of my end times doctrines were informed almost exclusively by The World Wide Church of God, which aired a television show on TBN back in the 80s. I had no particular affinity for the WWCG nor for anything else I saw on TBN but the point is that they made an argument and it was a darned good one at that, I might add. I also remember a little booklet I read called "88 Reasons Why The Rapture Will Be in 1988" and I believed every single word of it! I had joined the Army after high school and was in basic training during Rosh Hash-Ana (Sept. 1988) and FULLY expected not to make it to graduation. You want to talk about having my faith shaken! Holy smokes! Of course, I know now that ALL 88 reasons were flatly wrong! Image that! Writing a book with 88 reasons for something where you get 100% of those reasons wrong. That's the power of paradigm and of proof-texting!

If we don’t go to scripture, where else is there to go? That is the only place I'm going.
Reason, that's were!

Scripture is useless without reason! You can get everything from Southern Baptist doctrine to Catholicism to Branch Davidianism and everything in between from scripture if you do not use sound reason and employ proper hermeneutical principles and a top down (i.e. from the big picture down to the details) approach to the reading and interpretation of the bible.

Further, as I've tried and tried to explain to you, our disagreement is not based on bible verses anyway. Every bible verse you quote in support of your doctrine is actually in support of mine! I do NOT have problem texts! You think I do but that's because you read them from within your theological paradigm!

Now, I know that you aren't convinced that what I just said is true but just for a moment, suppose that it is and then tell me how I'm supposed to proceed down a path where I defend what you see as problem texts for me and proof texts for you? How could that possibly be profitable? It would be like describing the color blue by pointing at the sky on a cloudy day! It doesn't work!

Imagine for a moment that the shoe was on the other foot here. Imagine, for example, that you were trying to convince a Branch Davidian that David Koresh was not any sort of Messiah. Those folks believe that (to this day) and they can argue with you until you're blue in the face and dead as a hammer without hardly stopping to take a breath between quoting bible verses. David Koresh had whole books of the bible memorized and every word he'd read to his followers was filtered through their twisted paradigm filter and was turned into something that fully supported their doctrine. There was/is no way you could ever convince any of them that they've got one syllable of their doctrine wrong by quoting bible verses to them. All you'd do is cement them further into their delusion.

Now that's an extreme example that doesn't fit exactly because those folks aren't at all worried about being rational. They have no problem with redefining common words (not the least of which is the word "Messiah", by the way.) as well as loading passages up with meaning that the text itself cannot support. Neither of us are in that kind of boat but the point is simply that you cannot just ignore the paradigm through which the scripture is being understood and think that quoting a passage of scripture aught to be enough to persuade someone away from their doctrine. It's far more complicated than that.

And so, to reiterate once again, I have no problem with having passages of scripture to support one's doctrine - quite the contrary. It's simply that I know from experience that to focus on proof-texts is fruitless at best and counter productive at worst.

This doesn’t help me understand where you’re coming from. I believe the passage is telling us that Jesus did away with the law of Moses nailing it to the cross. You have not confirmed nor denied this so all I can do is assume. I'd rather not assume.
What's there to assume?

That's what it says, isn't it? Was there another "handwriting of requirements" that I haven't heard about besides the Ten Commandments and the Law of Moses?

Here is my solid biblical evidence that Paul is just like the other apostles.

When he preached the gospel to non-Christians, it was exactly the same sermon as when Peter preached to non-Christians. When he converted non-Christians, he did it exactly the same way as the other apostles and just as Jesus instructed the 12. He did so on every journey right up to his LAST recorded conversion. As you said, it's not a matter of opinion. That's what the bible says. He even baptized a Gentile believer just like Peter did before him. WHY would he ever do that IF he was different?
Wow! The power of paradigm is utterly insurmountable except by God Himself!

The question isn't why he would have baptized (which I've explained already) but why he existed at all (i.e. as an apostle)?!

If what you claim is true and Paul preached the same message as Peter, which it flatly isn't, why in the world did God need Paul at all?
Why was Paul taught what he repeatedly referred to as "my gospel" (Romans 2:16; Romans 16:25; I Tim. 1:11 & 2 Tim. 2:8) by direct divine revelation? (Gal. 1:12; 2 Cor. 12:7; Eph. 3:3)
Why, if he was preaching the same thing, was he sent, again by divine revelation, to explain what he was preaching to the Twelve? (Gal. 2:2)
Why, if he was preaching the same thing as Peter, did he have to get in Peter's face about the gospel? (Gal. 2:11)
Why, if Paul was preaching the same thing as Peter, does Peter say that some things that Paul teaches are "hard to understand"? (2 Peter 3:16)

Where, besides Paul, do we read anything like "If you become circumcised, Christ will profit you nothing."? (Gal. 5:2)
Where did Peter ever say anything resembling "in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision avails anything"? (Gal. 5:6 & Gal. 6:15)
Was it Paul's followers who Luke, in the book of Acts, records as being "zealous for the law" or was that Jewish believers that followed James and the Twelve? (Acts 21)

There are whole denominations that ignore Paul almost entirely! Go to a Seventh Day Adventist church and see how often they preach from the Pauline Epistles. It happens but not very often. Go to a church were modern Messianic Jews congregate. You'll likely not hear a syllable of Paul's writings in one of those churches if you attended for a month of Sundays. In fact, many of them don't even consider Paul to be a valid apostle and think that his writings are a deception. Then, of course, there are those on the opposite side of that spectrum and think that the book of James is invalid and shouldn't have been included in the bible because they can't reconcile it with - who? - Peter? - no, not Peter and not John either! - it's Paul that they can't reconciled with the plain reading of book of James.

But you somehow think that Paul's writing are just more of the same thing that exists in the Gospels, Acts and the writings of Peter, James and John. And I'm here to tell you that the only reason your brain is telling you that is because of your doctrine which you bring to the reading of scripture.

Clete

P.S. Note that I quote the bible using the New King James almost exclusively but when I quoted Exodus 32 and Jeremiah 18 I changed the word "relent" to "repent". The translators of pretty much all of the English versions of the bible, including the New King James, were pretty much all Calvinists and even though the word in the original language (nacham - Strong's H5162) means "repent", the Calvinist translators just could not bring themselves to translate it that way so they used "relent" instead. The King James uses "repent" but I like using the New King James because it is far easier to read. So I just change the word 'relent' to 'repent'.
 
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Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
I agree with your facts but I suggest you consider what they were preaching at this time BEFORE Jesus's DBR.

Yes, but let us consider the central teaching of the gospel of the preaching of the kingdom (Lk.9:2,6) which both the Twelve and Paul preached to the Jews (Acts 20:25). That gospel is the same one Paul described here:

"Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God, (Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,) Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh; And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead" (Ro.1:1-4).​

This gospel was promised before by the prophets in the Old Testament so it was not a gospel which was kept secret. Instead, it declared that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God. And all those who believed that gospel were born of God upon believing it (1 Jn.5:1-5; Jn.20:30-31).

The gospel which Paul preached to the Gentiles had been kept secret so it cannot possibibly be the same "good news" which was promised by the OT prophets:

"Now to him who is able to establish you in accordance with my gospel, the message I proclaim about Jesus Christ, in keeping with the revelation of the mystery hidden for long ages past, but now revealed and made known through the prophetic writings by the command of the eternal God, so that all the Gentiles might come to the obedience that comes from faith—to the only wise God be glory forever through Jesus Christ!"
(Ro.16:25-27).​

The "good news" preached by the Twelve to the Jews concerned the "identity" of the Lord Jesus while the "good news" preached by Paul to the Gentiles concerned the purpose of the death of the Lord Jesus--"For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him" (2 Cor.5:21).

The Jews were saved when they believed the gospel that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God. The Gentiles were saved when they believed the gospel that Christ died for our sins. That can only mean that the gospel which Paul preached to the Gentiles is a different gospel than the one Peter preached to the Jews.
 
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Cntrysner

Active member
The main reason that the Mosaic Covenant (the law) was given to Israel is stated as follows:

"Now therefore, if ye will obey my voice indeed, and keep my covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto me above all people: for all the earth is mine: And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation" (Ex.19:5-6).​
The Israelites did not obey the voice of God or trust God but still wanted someone to rule over them.

Since none of the Jews kept the law perfectly then the law could in no way contribute to the salvation of any of them. After all, James explained that if a Jew broke even one commandment he was guilty of all (Jas.2:10) so being guilty of all cannot in anyway contribute to the salvation of those who lived under the law. Nonetheless, there were some Jews who thought that they could make themselves acceptable to the LORD according to their personal righteousness:


The Mosaic law played a vital role until Christ so it's contribution was extremely important.

"For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God" (Ro.10:3).
Paul explains that Christ is the end of law for righteousness for all who believe:

"For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth" (Ro.10:3).​

That explains the fact that the Lord Jesus told the Jews who lived under the law the following:

"Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life" (Jn.6:47).​

"Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life" (Jn.5:24).​

When the Lord Jesus spoke of eternal life to Jews under the law. I submit that He is referring to a continuation of belief until He finished the work of the cross.

Joh 6:51 I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.
Joh 6:52 The Jews therefore strove among themselves, saying, How can this man give us his flesh to eat?

They did not discern His words of eternal life. It was not even possible to receive eternal life until after Christ died and removed the law for those that believed on His finished work at the cross. Paul was the first to convey the meaning of the body of Christ.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
They did not discern His words of eternal life. It was not even possible to receive eternal life until after Christ died and removed the law for those that believed on His finished work at the cross. Paul was the first to convey the meaning of the body of Christ.

The Lord Jesus told them the following:

"Very truly I tell you, the one who believes has eternal life" (Jn.6:47).​

In this verse the Greek word translated "believes" and the Greek word translated "has" are both in the "present" tense.

In The Blue Letter Bible we read the following meaning of the present tense:

"The present tense represents a simple statement of fact or reality viewed as occurring in actual time. In most cases this corresponds directly with the English present tense."


Therefore, John 5:24 is saying that those who were believing at the time the Lord Jesus spoke those words had already received eternal life. That is what is meant as something being "viewed as occuring in actual time."
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
They did not discern His words of eternal life. It was not even possible to receive eternal life until after Christ died and removed the law for those that believed on His finished work at the cross. Paul was the first to convey the meaning of the body of Christ.

I think defining terms might be beneficial here. What, in your view, does it mean "to receive eternal life"?

What do you believe happened to those believers who died physically before the cross?


I'll offer my thoughts and we'll see if we're in agreement (my bet is that we are - at least mostly)...

There are two kinds of death for human beings. When your soul/spirit separates from your physical body, you are physically dead. When your soul/spirit is separated from the Father, you are spiritually dead.

When we are born (physically conceived in the womb) we have an awareness of God and are alive both physically and spiritually (Luke 1:41). Then the commandment (the law) comes and kills us spiritually (Romans 7:9). If you are spiritually dead when you die physically, your goose is well and truly cooked (Luke 16:24) but if we place our faith in Christ before our physical death we are made spiritually alive again (Gal. 2:20; 1 Peter 3:18).

Those who died physically while in relationship with God but prior to Christ's death were not condemned but were sent to a place called "Paradise" (Luke 23:43) or "Abraham's Bosom" (Luke 16:22) and awaited the propitiation that would allow them to be in the Father's presence. So in the sense that there was still this separation between them and the Father, they were "dead" and while eternal life was theirs, they had not yet received it in the sense of being permitted into the presence of the Father, who is Life. Then, after Jesus died (He died both physically and spiritually by the way (Matthew 27:46)), He went to Paradise along with the rest of the righteous dead (Luke 23:43) and then, when He arose, there was no longer any need for "Abraham's Bosom" and the place was emptied out.

Now, while there is biblical support for all that, it should be stated that the biblical material is less than absolutely definitive on the subject of where Old Testament believers went after their physical death and so that much of this aught not be held too dogmatically. (see foot note below) Having said that, this is what I believe has the most biblical support and which makes the most logical sense. Not only that but it permits your statement and Jerry's rebuttal to both be true.

Clete

[There are examples of Old Testament believers going to be in the presence of God, Enoch and Elijah being the two most glaringly obvious examples. The bible even states specifically that "Elijah went up to heaven in a whirlwind." Now whether that means into the presence of God the Father or not is still a matter of speculation but the point is that there is plenty of wiggle room on this issue and any dogmatic pulpit pounding would be misplaced here.]
 

turbosixx

New member
Not angry, annoyed!

And I've responded directly to every single word, sentence by sentence with direct and substantive counter argument that have almost universally been completely ignored by you!

If you want to get me angry, just continue down the road of hypocrisy and we'll get there quickly.


Who cares what "it looks from my viewpoint"?

The entire discussion is all still here for the whole world to read, T6. Just go back and read it again and see if even you can think that you're the one being more responsive.


No, He absolutely cannot! Not and continue to be the consistent God that He has been since eternity past.

Do you really not think through the things you say at all?

If God could just arbitrarily interchange apostles for no reason at all, as your hypothesis suggests, then on what basis would any of the Twelve Apostles trust God to keep His promises toward them about anything else? If the Twelve can't trust God then why can you?

God is not arbitrary, T6! He does things for a reason. Your grasping at theological straws is devastating not just to your own doctrinal coherence but to the coherence of the entire Christian faith!


Look, it's pretty clear who's being emotional here and it isn't me. This example proves MY POINT, not yours and all it takes to see it is a little bit of knowledge about biblical history.

It isn't just Dan that's missing from the Revelation list, Ephraim is missing as well (See the list of the tribes given in Numbers 1).

Both the tribe of Dan and the tribe of Ephraim were removed because they rebelled against God and worshiped idols.

Judges 18:30 Then the children of Dan set up for themselves the carved image; and Jonathan the son of Gershom, the son of Manasseh, and his sons were priests to the tribe of Dan until the day of the captivity of the land. 31 So they set up for themselves Micah’s carved image which he made, all the time that the house of God was in Shiloh.

Hosea 4:17 “Ephraim is joined to idols,
Let him alone.​

Indeed, the entire nation of Israel would have been completely wiped totally out except for Moses because of idolatry if not for Moses talking God out of it.

Exodus 32: 9 And the Lord said to Moses, “I have seen this people, and indeed it is a stiff-necked people! 10 Now therefore, let Me alone, that My wrath may burn hot against them and I may consume them. And I will make of you a great nation.”

11 Then Moses pleaded with the Lord his God, and said: “Lord, why does Your wrath burn hot against Your people whom You have brought out of the land of Egypt with great power and with a mighty hand? 12 Why should the Egyptians speak, and say, ‘He brought them out to harm them, to kill them in the mountains, and to consume them from the face of the earth’? Turn from Your fierce wrath, and repent from this harm to Your people. 13 Remember Abraham, Isaac, and Israel, Your servants, to whom You swore by Your own self, and said to them, ‘I will multiply your descendants as the stars of heaven; and all this land that I have spoken of I give to your descendants, and they shall inherit it forever.’ ” 14 So the Lord repented from the harm which He said He would do to His people.​

And indeed, it is because of unbelief that God cut Israel off (Romans 11:20 and elsewhere) and did not give them their kingdom shortly after the ascension of Jesus Christ. Paul cites Jeremiah 18 as the principle by which God decided to cut off Israel. Jeremiah 18 may, in fact, be the single most important chapter in the whole bible. Here's the primary point the chapter makes...

Jeremiah 18: 7 The instant I speak concerning a nation and concerning a kingdom, to pluck up, to pull down, and to destroy it, 8 if that nation against whom I have spoken turns from its evil, I will repent of the disaster that I thought to bring upon it. 9 And the instant I speak concerning a nation and concerning a kingdom, to build and to plant it, 10 if it does evil in My sight so that it does not obey My voice, then I will repent concerning the good with which I said I would benefit it.​


Now what's the point of having gone through all that?

The point is that GOD DOES THINGS FOR A REASON!!!! Which has been my point all along.

God did not simply decide for some arbitrary reason to drop the tribe of Dan and replace it with Menasseh. HE DID NOT DO THAT! Dan would still be a tribe of Israel today if they had obeyed God and not rebelled and worshiped idols.

Which of the Twelve Apostle rebelled against God, T6? There was one! It was Judas Iscariot. The response to which was "Let another take his office.", which was done. The remaining eleven apostles which had been given authority by Jesus Himself to act in His absence even to the point of forgiving and/or the retention of sins (John 20:21-23) and they, after much prayer chose two and cast lots (Proverbs 18:18) to see which of those two God approved. The lot fell to Matthias. His validity as one of the Twelve as further confirmed on the Day of Pentecost when all Twelve were filled by the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:1-4).

Now, which of those twelve fell into disbelief, T6? Because if you want to think you have biblical support for one of them being replaced by Paul then that's the case you're going to have to make. Otherwise, you're just blowing smoke and grasping at any theological straw you can find in order to maintain the biblically baseless idea that there are thirteen men who's names are going to be on the twelve foundations of the New Jerusalem and thirteen men sitting on twelve thrones ruling over it.


The Twelve apostles are still apostles, T6. I don't understand what you're asking me here.

Israel has (to this day) twelve and only twelve apostles. Paul is not, nor has he ever been, nor will he ever be, an apostle to the nation of Israel. He is the singular and only apostle to the Body of Christ.

So there are a total of thirteen apostles but it isn't a single group of thirteen, it is one group of twelve and a separate "group" of one. It isn't 12 plus 1, it's 12 and 1.

Further, Israel's calling is Earthly while ours is Heavenly. It is Israel that will inherit the New Earth and the TWELVE apostles will rule over the TWELVE tribes of Israel, which will clearly be reestablished, from the New Jerusalem which will have each of their names on one of the twelve foundations of the city.

But it was Israel that came first, not the Body. The same Christ saves both Jew and Gentile and whether one was saved under this dispensation or the previous one, we are all members of the household of God of which Christ is the chief cornerstone. Paul isn't saying that we've all been made member of the nation of Israel, which is the only point I can imagine you're attempting to imply here. On the contrary, it's the Jews who have been made like Gentiles who now all have the same opportunity for membership in that household. There is now no longer any advantage to being an Israelite. There is no longer any corporate relationship with God available through the nation of Israel. Now that relationship is available to all by grace through faith in Christ.

But God didn't cut ALL of Israel off. He didn't cut off those who believed. The Twelve and their followers who were saved under the "Kingdom Gospel" (i.e. the dispensation of law) remained under that dispensational program until their physical death, for the gifts and the calling of God are irrevocable. (Rom. 11:29 also 1 Corinthians 7:17-20). And so, for a time, there were two groups of believers. One was ministered to from Jerusalem while Paul went to the whole rest of the world.

Galatians 2:9 9 and when James, Peter, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised.​


I've done far more than that and you know it. I've made directly relevant and substantively biblical arguments throughout. NONE of which you have responded to in any meaningful way except to suggest that God could just arbitrarily drop one apostle for another.


Which I have given, repeatedly.


No, I do not call it proof-texting.

Good grief! How many times do you want me to repeat the fact that I do not have any problem with someone having a proof text for some position they hold? That is not the point! The point is that you CANNOT BUILD A DOCTRINAL SYSTEM BASED ON PROOF-TEXTING!

Do you remember when I mentioned (probably on a different thread) how just about all the books you'll find on any number of different theological subjects will basically have the same format, regardless of which side of the issue the book is intended to support? If you have two books about eternal security, for example, one arguing for it and the other against it, both books will have roughly the same format. Each will spend 80% of it's pages focusing on it's collection of proof texts while the last portion of the book (usually past what most readers will make it through) is spent explaining how the problem texts don't mean what they seem to mean. That is the way 90+% of the Christian world does their theology. They take a subject, look up all the relevant biblical material and pick a side to take literally and a side to explain away. This bottom up approach (i.e. forming a big picture based on a collection of details) is what they do! That's what you do! Whether you think that's what you do or not, this thread alone is proof enough that it is what you do.

In other words, you have no over-arching premise that has been intentionally thought through and understood which informs your reading of scripture and your understanding of doctrine as a whole. You simply have a collection of doctrines that you hold to and you have learned how those specific doctrines are defended. But there's no thread that runs through and holds them all together as a cohesive integrated whole.

And please understand that that is not said to be insulting. I was in that exact place for decades! I totally loved God and was totally saved and a totally legitimate member of the Body of Christ who loved the bible and read it all the time and did bible studies and watched Christian television and wanted constantly to better understand God and His word. And I'm absolutely convinced that all of that is just as true of you as it was of me when I thought the way you do now.

What I was always doing was looking for a better, more complete and eloquent way of understanding individual doctrines. In other words, given a particular doctrine, my position on that doctrine would have been whichever position I had heard the best argument for up to that point in my life. And while I held to some doctrines more strongly than others, I wasn't married to any particular side of any disputable issue. If you could present to me an argument that I found more compelling, it was time for me to change my doctrine and I did so.

When I was young that translated into my holding all kinds of what I now know to have been crazy positions on all sorts of things. I remember a time when nearly all of my end times doctrines were informed almost exclusively by The World Wide Church of God, which aired a television show on TBN back in the 80s. I had no particular affinity for the WWCG nor for anything else I saw on TBN but the point is that they made an argument and it was a darned good one at that, I might add. I also remember a little booklet I read called "88 Reasons Why The Rapture Will Be in 1988" and I believed every single word of it! I had joined the Army after high school and was in basic training during Rosh Hash-Ana (Sept. 1988) and FULLY expected not to make it to graduation. You want to talk about having my faith shaken! Holy smokes! Of course, I know now that ALL 88 reasons were flatly wrong! Image that! Writing a book with 88 reasons for something where you get 100% of those reasons wrong. That's the power of paradigm and of proof-texting!


Reason, that's were!

Scripture is useless without reason! You can get everything from Southern Baptist doctrine to Catholicism to Branch Davidianism and everything in between from scripture if you do not use sound reason and employ proper hermeneutical principles and a top down (i.e. from the big picture down to the details) approach to the reading and interpretation of the bible.

Further, as I've tried and tried to explain to you, our disagreement is not based on bible verses anyway. Every bible verse you quote in support of your doctrine is actually in support of mine! I do NOT have problem texts! You think I do but that's because you read them from within your theological paradigm!

Now, I know that you aren't convinced that what I just said is true but just for a moment, suppose that it is and then tell me how I'm supposed to proceed down a path where I defend what you see as problem texts for me and proof texts for you? How could that possibly be profitable? It would be like describing the color blue by pointing at the sky on a cloudy day! It doesn't work!

Imagine for a moment that the shoe was on the other foot here. Imagine, for example, that you were trying to convince a Branch Davidian that David Koresh was not any sort of Messiah. Those folks believe that (to this day) and they can argue with you until you're blue in the face and dead as a hammer without hardly stopping to take a breath between quoting bible verses. David Koresh had whole books of the bible memorized and every word he'd read to his followers was filtered through their twisted paradigm filter and was turned into something that fully supported their doctrine. There was/is no way you could ever convince any of them that they've got one syllable of their doctrine wrong by quoting bible verses to them. All you'd do is cement them further into their delusion.

Now that's an extreme example that doesn't fit exactly because those folks aren't at all worried about being rational. They have no problem with redefining common words (not the least of which is the word "Messiah", by the way.) as well as loading passages up with meaning that the text itself cannot support. Neither of us are in that kind of boat but the point is simply that you cannot just ignore the paradigm through which the scripture is being understood and think that quoting a passage of scripture aught to be enough to persuade someone away from their doctrine. It's far more complicated than that.

And so, to reiterate once again, I have no problem with having passages of scripture to support one's doctrine - quite the contrary. It's simply that I know from experience that to focus on proof-texts is fruitless at best and counter productive at worst.


What's there to assume?

That's what it says, isn't it? Was there another "handwriting of requirements" that I haven't heard about besides the Ten Commandments and the Law of Moses?


Wow! The power of paradigm is utterly insurmountable except by God Himself!

The question isn't why he would have baptized (which I've explained already) but why he existed at all (i.e. as an apostle)?!

If what you claim is true and Paul preached the same message as Peter, which it flatly isn't, why in the world did God need Paul at all?
Why was Paul taught what he repeatedly referred to as "my gospel" (Romans 2:16; Romans 16:25; I Tim. 1:11 & 2 Tim. 2:8) by direct divine revelation? (Gal. 1:12; 2 Cor. 12:7; Eph. 3:3)
Why, if he was preaching the same thing, was he sent, again by divine revelation, to explain what he was preaching to the Twelve? (Gal. 2:2)
Why, if he was preaching the same thing as Peter, did he have to get in Peter's face about the gospel? (Gal. 2:11)
Why, if Paul was preaching the same thing as Peter, does Peter say that some things that Paul teaches are "hard to understand"? (2 Peter 3:16)

Where, besides Paul, do we read anything like "If you become circumcised, Christ will profit you nothing."? (Gal. 5:2)
Where did Peter ever say anything resembling "in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision avails anything"? (Gal. 5:6 & Gal. 6:15)
Was it Paul's followers who Luke, in the book of Acts, records as being "zealous for the law" or was that Jewish believers that followed James and the Twelve? (Acts 21)

There are whole denominations that ignore Paul almost entirely! Go to a Seventh Day Adventist church and see how often they preach from the Pauline Epistles. It happens but not very often. Go to a church were modern Messianic Jews congregate. You'll likely not hear a syllable of Paul's writings in one of those churches if you attended for a month of Sundays. In fact, many of them don't even consider Paul to be a valid apostle and think that his writings are a deception. Then, of course, there are those on the opposite side of that spectrum and think that the book of James is invalid and shouldn't have been included in the bible because they can't reconcile it with - who? - Peter? - no, not Peter and not John either! - it's Paul that they can't reconciled with the plain reading of book of James.

But you somehow think that Paul's writing are just more of the same thing that exists in the Gospels, Acts and the writings of Peter, James and John. And I'm here to tell you that the only reason your brain is telling you that is because of your doctrine which you bring to the reading of scripture.

Clete

P.S. Note that I quote the bible using the New King James almost exclusively but when I quoted Exodus 32 and Jeremiah 18 I changed the word "relent" to "repent". The translators of pretty much all of the English versions of the bible, including the New King James, were pretty much all Calvinists and even though the word in the original language (nacham - Strong's H5162) means "repent", the Calvinist translators just could not bring themselves to translate it that way so they used "relent" instead. The King James uses "repent" but I like using the New King James because it is far easier to read. So I just change the word 'relent' to 'repent'.
I'm sorry you're annoyed. You have to believe I'm doing my best.

Thanks for the excellent reply. I don't have time to address it all and I'm still chewing on it but I would like to address the top down issue.

What exactly is your top down? Here is mine.

SIN. When sin came into the world that separated man from God. God had a plan even before the foundation of the world. Jesus came into the world to save sinners, 1 Tim. 1:15, and remove that barrier of sin. God made a promise/covenant to Abram that was looking forward to the Messiah and would apply to the whole world,Gen. 12:3. God set the Jews apart from the rest of the world and gave them the oracles that would give them the details to look for, identify, and verify the Messiah. The promise was not to the Jews but to Christ.
Gal. 3:16 Now the promises were made to Abraham and to his offspring. It does not say, “And to offsprings,” referring to many, but referring to one, “And to your offspring,” who is Christ.

The gospel of Jesus Christ began with John the Baptist looking forward to Jesus's DBR. After Jesus DBR, those who were faithful under the previous covenant had Jesus's blood applied to them. The law is no more and the Jews are to no longer approach God through the law. I believe that is why God tore the veil at Jesus death. After Jesus's ascension, the forgiveness of sins IN THE NAME OF Jesus would first be proclaimed from Jerusalem, Lk.24:47. As the great commission states, this gospel is for ALL not just the Jews. What Peter preached on Pentecost was for ALL. When I see Paul preach the same sermon as Peter did and Paul baptize believers just as Peter did it makes sense because the law ended at the cross, Eph.2;Col.2, and that is how we call on His name, Acts 22:16, and that is HOW someone is made a Christian, Matt.28:19.

That is a quick summary of my understanding.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
I agree with your facts but I suggest you consider what they were preaching at this time BEFORE Jesus's DBR.

Yes, but let us consider the central teaching of the gospel of the preaching of the kingdom (Lk.9:2,6) which both the Twelve and Paul preached to the Jews (Acts 20:25). That gospel is the same one Paul described here:

"Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God, (Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,) Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh; And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead" (Ro.1:1-4).​

This gospel was promised before by the prophets in the Old Testament so it was not a gospel which was kept secret. Instead, it declared that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God. And all those who believed that gospel were born of God upon believing it (1 Jn.5:1-5; Jn.20:30-31).

The gospel which Paul preached to the Gentiles had been kept secret so it cannot possibibly be the same "good news" which was promised by the OT prophets:

"Now to him who is able to establish you in accordance with my gospel, the message I proclaim about Jesus Christ, in keeping with the revelation of the mystery hidden for long ages past, but now revealed and made known through the prophetic writings by the command of the eternal God, so that all the Gentiles might come to the obedience that comes from faith—to the only wise God be glory forever through Jesus Christ!"
(Ro.16:25-27).​

The "good news" preached by the Twelve to the Jews concerned the "identity" of the Lord Jesus while the "good news" preached by Paul to the Gentiles concerned the purpose of the death of the Lord Jesus--"For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him" (2 Cor.5:21).

The Jews were saved when they believed the gospel that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God. The Gentiles were saved when they believed the gospel that Christ died for our sins. That can only mean that the gospel which Paul preached to the Gentiles is a different gospel than the one Peter preached to the Jews.
 
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Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
I'm sorry you're annoyed. You have to believe I'm doing my best.

Thanks for the excellent reply. I don't have time to address it all and I'm still chewing on it but I would like to address the top down issue.

What exactly is your top down? Here is mine.

SIN. When sin came into the world that separated man from God. God had a plan even before the foundation of the world. Jesus came into the world to save sinners, 1 Tim. 1:15, and remove that barrier of sin. God made a promise/covenant to Abram that was looking forward to the Messiah and would apply to the whole world,Gen. 12:3. God set the Jews apart from the rest of the world and gave them the oracles that would give them the details to look for, identify, and verify the Messiah. The promise was not to the Jews but to Christ.
Gal. 3:16 Now the promises were made to Abraham and to his offspring. It does not say, “And to offsprings,” referring to many, but referring to one, “And to your offspring,” who is Christ.

The gospel of Jesus Christ began with John the Baptist looking forward to Jesus's DBR. After Jesus DBR, those who were faithful under the previous covenant had Jesus's blood applied to them. The law is no more and the Jews are to no longer approach God through the law. I believe that is why God tore the veil at Jesus death. After Jesus's ascension, the forgiveness of sins IN THE NAME OF Jesus would first be proclaimed from Jerusalem, Lk.24:47. As the great commission states, this gospel is for ALL not just the Jews. What Peter preached on Pentecost was for ALL. When I see Paul preach the same sermon as Peter did and Paul baptize believers just as Peter did it makes sense because the law ended at the cross, Eph.2;Col.2, and that is how we call on His name, Acts 22:16, and that is HOW someone is made a Christian, Matt.28:19.

That is a quick summary of my understanding.

Do you know how long I spent writing that last post which included several direct references to scripture per your request, by the way.

Is anything I'm saying to you even getting through? Are you just as likely now as you were yesterday to suggest to someone that Paul was "just another apostle" and that God can simply substitute one apostle for another if He wants to or any of the other things I've made arguments against?

I tell you that I'm annoyed and why I'm annoyed and you respond to that by saying you don't mean to be annoying but then do precisely what I just said was annoying me so much! :bang:

Your question is not irrelevant and so I don't mind answering it but not until you've done a little more to convince me that this isn't one giangantic waste of my time.

Clete
 

Cntrysner

Active member
I think defining terms might be beneficial here. What, in your view, does it mean "to receive eternal life"?

To put off this body of flesh and be cloaked in the Spirit of Christ.

What do you believe happened to those believers who died physically before the cross?

They descended.


I'll offer my thoughts and we'll see if we're in agreement (my bet is that we are - at least mostly)...

There are two kinds of death for human beings. When your soul/spirit separates from your physical body, you are physically dead. When your soul/spirit is separated from the Father, you are spiritually dead.

When we are born (physically conceived in the womb) we have an awareness of God and are alive both physically and spiritually (Luke 1:41). Then the commandment (the law) comes and kills us spiritually (Romans 7:9). If you are spiritually dead when you die physically, your goose is well and truly cooked (Luke 16:24) but if we place our faith in Christ before our physical death we are made spiritually alive again (Gal. 2:20; 1 Peter 3:18).

Man was created triune in the image or likeness of God....body, soul, and spirit.

Gen 3:24 So he drove out the man; and he placed at the east of the garden of Eden Cherubims, and a flaming sword which turned every way, to keep the way of the tree of life.

Those who died physically while in relationship with God but prior to Christ's death were not condemned but were sent to a place called "Paradise" (Luke 23:43) or "Abraham's Bosom" (Luke 16:22) and awaited the propitiation that would allow them to be in the Father's presence. So in the sense that there was still this separation between them and the Father, they were "dead" and while eternal life was theirs, they had not yet received it in the sense of being permitted into the presence of the Father, who is Life. Then, after Jesus died (He died both physically and spiritually by the way (Matthew 27:46)), He went to Paradise along with the rest of the righteous dead (Luke 23:43) and then, when He arose, there was no longer any need for "Abraham's Bosom" and the place was emptied out.

I would say their descension was a form of condemnation which was required. Not sure Paradise is a reference to Abraham's bosom. When Christ descended He preached to the captives. Who do you believe the captives were? I don't see a reason to preach to the damned and why the need to preach?
One would have to be in the presence of the Father to have eternal life as we are in Christ. I agree Christ died physically and spiritually descending to Abraham's bosom but He being triune was still very alive in the Father. Christ bore the sin of His creation and what a miraculous suffering it was, something I can't comprehend.
It seems Abraham could see the rich man in hades and spoke to him. Abraham appears to have heard the cries of the tormented, doesn't sound like paradise to me. We need the righteousness of Christ.

Now, while there is biblical support for all that, it should be stated that the biblical material is less than absolutely definitive on the subject of where Old Testament believers went after their physical death and so that much of this aught not be held too dogmatically. (see foot note below) Having said that, this is what I believe has the most biblical support and which makes the most logical sense. Not only that but it permits your statement and Jerry's rebuttal to both be true.

Not trying to be dogmatic but more like a Berean with a long way to go....:)

Clete

[There are examples of Old Testament believers going to be in the presence of God, Enoch and Elijah being the two most glaringly obvious examples. The bible even states specifically that "Elijah went up to heaven in a whirlwind." Now whether that means into the presence of God the Father or not is still a matter of speculation but the point is that there is plenty of wiggle room on this issue and any dogmatic pulpit pounding would be misplaced here.]

Clete, I apologise if I derailed this thread. I was merely defending the death of Christ and He being the first fruit of eternal life. I believe... in order to receive eternal life one has to be in the ascended Christ.
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Cntrysner; said:
Clete; said:
I think defining terms might be beneficial here. What, in your view, does it mean "to receive eternal life"?
To put off this body of flesh and be cloaked in the Spirit of Christ.
Well, this is something of a tautology. I'm sort of left with the same question.

Give me an answer where I'd have to be stupid not to understand what you're talking about. Pretend that I don't know anything but the most basic things about Christianity.

What do you believe happened to those believers who died physically before the cross?
They descended.
Descended?

Where too? Be more specific.

And don't quote me the Apostle's Creed. If a doctrine isn't in the bible, it's fiction as far as I'm concerned.

I'll offer my thoughts and we'll see if we're in agreement (my bet is that we are - at least mostly)...
There are two kinds of death for human beings. When your soul/spirit separates from your physical body, you are physically dead. When your soul/spirit is separated from the Father, you are spiritually dead.

When we are born (physically conceived in the womb) we have an awareness of God and are alive both physically and spiritually (Luke 1:41). Then the commandment (the law) comes and kills us spiritually (Romans 7:9). If you are spiritually dead when you die physically, your goose is well and truly cooked (Luke 16:24) but if we place our faith in Christ before our physical death we are made spiritually alive again (Gal. 2:20; 1 Peter 3:18).
Man was created triune in the image or likeness of God....body, soul, and spirit.

Gen 3:24 So he drove out the man; and he placed at the east of the garden of Eden Cherubims, and a flaming sword which turned every way, to keep the way of the tree of life.
Okay, so how is this responsive to what I wrote and what does the angelic guard placed at the entrance to Eden have to do with it?

Those who died physically while in relationship with God but prior to Christ's death were not condemned but were sent to a place called "Paradise" (Luke 23:43) or "Abraham's Bosom" (Luke 16:22) and awaited the propitiation that would allow them to be in the Father's presence. So in the sense that there was still this separation between them and the Father, they were "dead" and while eternal life was theirs, they had not yet received it in the sense of being permitted into the presence of the Father, who is Life. Then, after Jesus died (He died both physically and spiritually by the way (Matthew 27:46)), He went to Paradise along with the rest of the righteous dead (Luke 23:43) and then, when He arose, there was no longer any need for "Abraham's Bosom" and the place was emptied out.
I would say their descension was a form of condemnation which was required.
You think that Abraham, the thief on the cross who went to "paradise" and everyone inbetween as well as Jesus Christ Himself were condemned?
Is that really what you were trying to say here?

Not sure Paradise is a reference to Abraham's bosom.
What else would it be? When Jesus told that criminal that "Today, you will be with Me in Paradise." where was He talking about if not Abraham Bosom?

When Christ descended He preached to the captives. Who do you believe the captives were? I don't see a reason to preach to the damned and why the need to preach?
You're referring to I Peter 3:18-20.

There has been confusion and debate about those three verses since before Augustine. I suspect that we simply do not know what Peter was referring too.

One would have to be in the presence of the Father to have eternal life as we are in Christ. I agree Christ died physically and spiritually descending to Abraham's bosom but He being triune was still very alive in the Father.
I totally accept the Trinity doctrine and understand that in some, important and fundamental way, the Father, Son and Spirit are One God but Jesus did not die and not die. That would be a contradiction.

There is no need to complicate an already murky issue. Let's just stick with the fact that, in some substantive way, Jesus, God the Son, was separated from the Father and in that sense, He died in every sense of the word just as every other human being does.

Christ bore the sin of His creation and what a miraculous suffering it was, something I can't comprehend.
It seems Abraham could see the rich man in hades and spoke to him. Abraham appears to have heard the cries of the tormented, doesn't sound like paradise to me. We need the righteousness of Christ.
First of all the story told by Jesus in the last half of Luke 16 may simply have been a parable. It does not need to be understood as a recounting of real events.

Second, Jesus specifically said that the criminal on the cross would be present with Him in paradise that day and so why would anyone expect there to be anyone being tormented in Paradise?

Further, even if Jesus was recounting a real event, it's pretty clear that Abraham and Lazarus were not being tormented and so I don't understand your point here.

Now, while there is biblical support for all that, it should be stated that the biblical material is less than absolutely definitive on the subject of where Old Testament believers went after their physical death and so that much of this aught not be held too dogmatically. (see foot note below) Having said that, this is what I believe has the most biblical support and which makes the most logical sense. Not only that but it permits your statement and Jerry's rebuttal to both be true.
Not trying to be dogmatic but more like a Berean with a long way to go....
It wasn't my intention to suggest that anyone was being dogmatic. I was simply pointing out that this subject matter isn't dealt with in a very definitively manner in scripture and so we aught to be content with a certain level of ignorance concerning it.

Clete, I apologize if I derailed this thread. I was merely defending the death of Christ and He being the first fruit of eternal life. I believe... in order to receive eternal life one has to be in the ascended Christ.

You didn't derail anything. I just saw your post and thought I'd weigh in.

Clete
 
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Cntrysner

Active member
Well, this is something of a tautology. I'm sort of left with the same question.

Give me an answer where I'd have to be stupid not to understand what you're talking about. Pretend that I don't know anything but the most basic things about Christianity.

You have me at a disadvantage. Cut to the chase if you don't mind.

Descended?

Where too? Be more specific.

And don't quote me the Apostle's Creed. If a doctrine isn't in the bible, it's fiction as far as I'm concerned.

To Sheol it seems. Sheol appears to have two compartments one for the unredeemable and one for believers before the redemptive work of Christ at the cross.

Sa 28:14 And he said unto her, What form is he of? And she said, An old man cometh up; and he is covered with a mantle. And Saul perceived that it was Samuel, and he stooped with his face to the ground, and bowed himself.
1Sa 28:15 And Samuel said to Saul, Why hast thou disquieted me, to bring me up?

Gen 37:33 And he knew it, and said, It is my son's coat; an evil beast hath devoured him; Joseph is without doubt rent in pieces.
Gen 37:34 And Jacob rent his clothes, and put sackcloth upon his loins, and mourned for his son many days.
Gen 37:35 And all his sons and all his daughters rose up to comfort him; but he refused to be comforted; and he said, For I will go down into the grave unto my son mourning. Thus his father wept for him.


Okay, so how is this responsive to what I wrote and what does the angelic guard placed at the entrance to Eden have to do with it?

You were speaking as if man was dual in nature, that his makeup was flesh and a "soul/spirit". The angelic guard kept them away from the tree of life which should be a representation of eternal life which was the topic.


You think that Abraham, the thief on the cross who went to "paradise" and everyone inbetween as well as Jesus Christ Himself were condemned?
Is that really what you were trying to say here?

You should know better than to imply I believe Christ was ultimately condemned. Sheol appears to have two compartments.
The thief as Jesus said went to paradise but that does not mean Abraham did.
Do you believe Christ descended and if so where did he go and why?

What else would it be? When Jesus told that criminal that "Today, you will be with Me in Paradise." where was He talking about if not Abraham Bosom?


You're referring to I Peter 3:18-20.

There has been confusion and debate about those three verses since before Augustine. I suspect that we simply do not know what Peter was referring too.


I totally accept the Trinity doctrine and understand that in some, important and fundamental way, the Father, Son and Spirit are One God but Jesus did not die and not die. That would be a contradiction.

There is no need to complicate an already murky issue. Let's just stick with the fact that, in some substantive way, Jesus, God the Son, was separated from the Father and in that sense, He died in every sense of the word just as every other human being does.


First of all the story told by Jesus in the last half of Luke 16 may simply have been a parable. It does not need to be understood as a recounting of real events.

Second, Jesus specifically said that the criminal on the cross would be present with Him in paradise that day and so why would anyone expect there to be anyone being tormented in Paradise?

Further, even if Jesus was recounting a real event, it's pretty clear that Abraham and Lazarus were not being tormented and so I don't understand your point here.


It wasn't my intention to suggest that anyone was being dogmatic. I was simply pointing out that this subject matter isn't dealt with in a very definitively manner in scripture and so we aught to be content with a certain level of ignorance concerning it.



You didn't derail anything. I just saw your post and thought I'd weigh in.

Clete


God is triune and we are created in his image (triune). If then we are triune, body, soul, and spirit, doesn’t that reflect the possibility of three deaths? If you go to hell your flesh will return to dust from where it came and your spirit returns to God from where it came and you're left with just you as a soul that God created which will never die but can be separated from God. Just throwing this in, separation from God is the ultimate death for us and explained as outer darkness for the forsaken. Christ in the ninth hour of his death cried with a loud voice, saying, "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?" My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?. Christ knew from scripture that his soul would not be left in hell and he gave up his spirit. If he gave up his spirit and his flesh was still in the tomb then only his soul descended to further pay the ultimate price for sinners . We know that anyone else that is condemned to hell will not return. The ability for Christ to return from hell means he was still alive in the Father through his Spirit. Christ was both man and God though he was by necessity condemned for sinners like us. Christ did bare the sins of the world and paid the price fully for all lost condemned sinners not just one but only He was able to return from hell because it had no rasp on him as a sinless man.

One can look at eternal life in two ways. One is the promise of it and based on this promise one has to wait as the man Jesus did. If you have to wait do you really possess it? I say no you don’t possess it, it requires much more. It was a promise to believers before the cross but it has to do with what is believed and experienced. If you don't experience something how can you fully understand it? After the cross that promise was sealed in such a way by the death and ascension of Christ that one can possess eternal life right now.

Eternal life is in the Father as displayed by Jesus’ soul was not left in hell and He ascended back to the eternal Father in heaven. I would go so far as to say, one does not truly possess eternal life until they are in the presence of the Father and we can be through Christ. The man Jesus had to suffer the full condemnation of a sinner in order to pay the price of a sinner. The price he paid for a world full of sinners that believe in his finish work for sin through out time past and to the end of the world is something I can’t comprehend. If you look at one person that gets saved they know the price of sin. Paul knew such a price that he could not pay. I’m also speaking from my own experience at salvation and do not hold a candle to Paul. I felt the weight of my sin when Christ reveal himself to me and it was more than I could bare so he took me fully surrender unto himself. I could not bare my own sin and to think Christ bore the sins of mankind throughout time…only God through His Son could suffer that much.

You can shoot holes in what I believe if you choose. Doctrine is beginning to sound like a nasty word to me.

I know how inexperienced and uneducated I am and I can change my mind, I have done it multiple times concerning the scriptures. This was more of a rant and it has little properness to it.

The full meaning of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ, let’s not forget his ascension, was a mystery until He accomplished it and needs to be experienced through Christ, we can not achieve it because we are lost in sin. I am a dispensationalist in that sense of the mystery. To me eternal life is in that mystery by the faith of Christ in his ascension back to the Father but to some not.
 
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Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
You have me at a disadvantage. Cut to the chase if you don't mind.
There is no chase. It was a real question.

Different people have quite different takes on what it means to recieve eternal life. My only intent was to see if part of the disagreenment between you and Jerry had to do with a different idea about what it means to have recieved eternal life.

To Sheol it seems. Sheol appears to have two compartments one for the unredeemable and one for believers before the redemptive work of Christ at the cross.
This sounds basically consistent with what I presented.

'Abraham's Bosom' or 'Paradise' is the latter of these two "compartments", as you've called them.

You were speaking as if man was dual in nature, that his makeup was flesh and a "soul/spirit".
I see. It was not my intention to suggest that one's soul and spirit are one single thing but merely that they show up together at whichever post-death venue one find's himself at.

You should know better than to imply I believe Christ was ultimately condemned.
That wasn't the point. Your own words implied that, my point was to spur clarification.

Sheol appears to have two compartments. The thief as Jesus said went to paradise but that does not mean Abraham did.
Where else do you think Abraham would have gone besides the place intended for the righteous dead? Is there any doubt that he went to what is refered to as Abraham's Bosom?
Or is it that you are suggesting that there are more than just two compartments of the grave (sheol) and that Abraham's Bosom was a third compartment separate from Paradise?

Do you believe Christ descended and if so where did he go and why?
The verbage "descended" is reminicent of the phrasing of the Apostle's Creed and even if you had no intention of making such a reference it is a rather cryptic way of referring to what happened to Jesus after His physical death which is not exactly helpful when discussing an issue that is already fraught with murkiness as it is, Eph. 4:9-10 not withstanding. In other words, it wasn't clear just what you meant by "descended".

Jesus went to Paradise, as He said on the Cross. That much is utterly indisputable. We also know that, while in the grave, He had not ascended to the Father. Again, we know this because of Jesus' own words. Therefore, Paradise cannot be "Heaven" in the sense that it is where God the Father is but Paradise certainly is not what Hell is normally understood to be either. Jesus' parable about the rich man and Lazarus seems to make this very clear and so, unlike what many Christians believe, Jesus was not tormented in Hell for three days.

So, yes, Jesus descended into the grave (Eph 4:9-10) but He went to Paradise, not "Hell" (i.e. a place of punishment and torment).

God is triune and we are created in his image (triune). If then we are triune, body, soul, and spirit, doesn’t that reflect the possibility of three deaths? If you go to hell your flesh will return to dust from where it came and your spirit returns to God from where it came and you're left with just you as a soul that God created which will never die but can be separated from God.
Can you provide any scriptural support for this?

Jesus speaks of your "whole body being cast into Hell".


Just throwing this in, separation from God is the ultimate death for us and explained as outer darkness for the forsaken. Christ in the ninth hour of his death cried with a loud voice, saying, "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?" My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?. Christ knew from scripture that his soul would not be left in hell and he gave up his spirit. If he gave up his spirit and his flesh was still in the tomb then only his soul descended to further pay the ultimate price for sinners.
This goes a bit futher than what the text can support. Jesus committed His spirit into the hands of the Father but that doesn't mean His spirit ascended to the Father but simply that Jesus was trusting the Father to do with His spirit as He saw fit.

We know that anyone else that is condemned to hell will not return. The ability for Christ to return from hell means he was still alive in the Father through his Spirit.
No it doesn't mean that.

First of all Jesus did not go to Hell in the sense that people usually use that the term "Hell". The original laguage uses the word "sheol" which is occasionally translated as "Hell" but actually means "grave" and is not refering to a place of torment. That word in the original language would have been "Gehenna", which was not used in describing where Jesus went and in no sense could be called "Paradise".

The fact that Jesus had the power to take up His life again after having laid it down simply indicates that He didn't cease to exist and that He was/is God Himself.

Christ was both man and God though he was by necessity condemned for sinners like us. Christ did bare the sins of the world and paid the price fully for all lost condemned sinners not just one but only He was able to return from hell because it had no rasp on him as a sinless man.
Again, Jesus DID NOT GO TO HELL!!!! (Capital letters are for emphasis only and should not be taken as "yelling.")

The price He paid was death, not torment in a fiery Hell.

One can look at eternal life in two ways. One is the promise of it and based on this promise one has to wait as the man Jesus did. If you have to wait do you really possess it? I say no you don’t possess it, it requires much more. It was a promise to believers before the cross but it has to do with what is believed and experienced. If you don't experience something how can you fully understand it? After the cross that promise was sealed in such a way by the death and ascension of Christ that one can possess eternal life right now.

Eternal life is in the Father as displayed by Jesus’ soul was not left in hell and He ascended back to the eternal Father in heaven. I would go so far as to say, one does not truly possess eternal life until they are in the presence of the Father and we can be through Christ. The man Jesus had to suffer the full condemnation of a sinner in order to pay the price of a sinner. The price he paid for a world full of sinners that believe in his finish work for sin through out time past and to the end of the world is something I can’t comprehend. If you look at one person that gets saved they know the price of sin. Paul knew such a price that he could not pay. I’m also speaking from my own experience at salvation and do not hold a candle to Paul. I felt the weight of my sin when Christ reveal himself to me and it was more than I could bare so he took me fully surrender unto himself. I could not bare my own sin and to think Christ bore the sins of mankind throughout time…only God through His Son could suffer that much.

You can shoot holes in what I believe if you choose. Doctrine is beginning to sound like a nasty word to me.
My goal is not to shoot holes for the sake of shooting holes but rather to sharpen your iron with mine. The purpose of this site (among other things) is to test your mettle and to find out whether what you believe is biblical or whether it is just so much doctrine.

I submit to you that you believe that Jesus went to some sort of Hell, not because the bible teaches that but because men do. It is a quite common Christian belief, especially in Catholic circles. It flat out has no basis in scripture but Catholics don't hold scripture in as high esteem as others and count their tradition as the final arbitor of doctrinal truth. Their errors have infected the church for millenia and, since at least Augustine, have gotten worse and more damaging as time has gone on.

I know how inexperienced and uneducated I am and I can change my mind, I have done it multiple times concerning the scriptures. This was more of a rant and it has little properness to it.
It was just fine. There a little tweaking to the post formatting that needs done but you'll get that down in no time.

The full meaning of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ, let’s not forget his ascension, was a mystery until He accomplished it and needs to be experienced through Christ, we can not achieve it because we are lost in sin. I am a dispensationalist in that sense of the mystery. To me eternal life is in that mystery by the faith of Christ in his ascension back to the Father but to some not.
Indeed, the full meaning of it is likely entirely unapproachable by any mortal mind. We'll have to wait until we see Him face to face to really get the full picture of just what all was acomplished on that Tree.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
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Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
I really like this so i will quote it again..

“The Proper Attitude of Man Under Grace:

“To believe, and to consent to be loved while unworthy, is the great secret.
“To refuse to make ‘resolutions’ and ‘vows’; for that is to trust in the flesh.
“To expect to be blessed, though realizing more and more lack of worth…
“To rely on God’s chastening [child training] hand as a mark of His kindness…

“Things Which Gracious Souls Discover:

“To ‘hope to be better’ [hence acceptable] is to fail to see yourself in Christ only.
“To be disappointed with yourself, is to have believed in yourself.
“To be discouraged is unbelief,—as to God’s purpose and plan of blessing for you.
“To be proud, is to be blind! For we have no standing before God, in ourselves.
“The lack of Divine blessing, therefore, comes from unbelief, and not from failure of devotion…
“To preach devotion first, and blessing second, is to reverse God’s order, and preach law, not grace. The Law made man’s blessing depend on devotion; Grace confers undeserved, unconditional blessing: our devotion may follow, but does not always do so,—in proper measure.”

It took me to the cross again and brought out emotions I haven't felt in a while. Thanks
That's actually a quote of a quote. Miles J. Stanford quoted William R. Newell in a book called The Complete Green Letters.

Here's a link to both books. You'd likely LOVE Stanford's book!

The Complete Green Letters by Miles J. Stanford

Romans Verse by Verse by William R. Newell
 

Cntrysner

Active member
Clete,

Jesus did not suffer the torments of hell and I never said he did but he could enter it without the anguish of a condemned sinner. All condemned will be judged by the cross and will hear the message.

You hold that Abraham's bosom is a reference to paradise and the scriptures are cryptic concerning the location and description. If they are cryptic how can you hold on that assumption? Please show how the two are the same location. It is true Jesus had not ascended to the Father after he told the thief that today you will be with me in paradise.

When Jesus said he had not ascended to the Father he was referring to his earthly existence. The
transfiguration of his body had not occurred yet.

Jesus being triune in the nature of God eternal in three distinct viable separate parts has the possibility to be in different places at one period of time. Also, God can count one day as a thousand years as in “to day“ which Jesus told the thief. I also offered that Christ gave up his spirit at death and it did returned to the hands of the Father who abides in heaven. Jesus the man was still here in the grave or tomb. You did agree in a sense that Jesus descended. How are the grave and descension synonymous. Descension means leaving the place of location by going downward. I submit to you that Christ at death was separated into body, soul, and spirit just as we are at death. Three but separate and each separate part still viably triune. Man is not viable at death and loses his distinction but not God, the Son, or the Spirit during separation. I know I’m sounding cryptic to you, again.

Ecc 12:7 Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it.
Gen 2:7 And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul.

The breath of God is the spirit given to man and will return to God. The flesh of man will return to dust. The soul of man is living and will not die. The spirit can not go to hell, it came from God. Do you hold to some form of annihilationism or do you believe that a essence of God will be condemned in hell?


Eph 4:9 (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth?
Eph 4:10 He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.

…I want you to address the underlined above. Did Jesus descend to the lower parts of the earth? Is this scripture just supposed to remain cryptic?

Rev2:7..He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the tree of life, which is in the midst of the paradise of God.

I find that I am arguing with myself over the duality present with the truth of mid acts theology in reference to two gospels existing at the same time.

Paradise holds the tree of life which is Christ no longer a figure as in the garden or walking the earth. The Spirit is speaking to the church that understands the finished work and recognizes who Christ is. Paradise appears to be as Eden with in the very presence of God the Father in heaven.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
I find that I am arguing with myself over the duality present with the truth of mid acts theology in reference to two gospels existing at the same time.

Cntrysner, if you are arguing with yourself that the Mid Acts Dispensationalists are in error about two gospels existing at the same time then you are also arguing against the plain teaching of the Scriptures.

You need to consider the central teaching of the gospel of the preaching of the kingdom (Lk.9:2,6) which both the Twelve and Paul preached to the Jews (Acts 20:25). That gospel is the same one Paul described here:

"Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God, (Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,) Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh; And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead" (Ro.1:1-4).​

This gospel was promised before by the prophets in the Old Testament so it was not a gospel which was kept secret. Instead, it declared that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God. And all those who believed that gospel were born of God upon believing it (1 Jn.5:1-5; Jn.20:30-31).

The gospel which Paul preached to the Gentiles had been kept secret so it cannot possibibly be the same "good news" which was promised by the OT prophets:

"Now to him who is able to establish you in accordance with my gospel, the message I proclaim about Jesus Christ, in keeping with the revelation of the mystery hidden for long ages past, but now revealed and made known through the prophetic writings by the command of the eternal God, so that all the Gentiles might come to the obedience that comes from faith—to the only wise God be glory forever through Jesus Christ!"
(Ro.16:25-27).​

The "good news" preached by the Twelve to the Jews concerned the "identity" of the Lord Jesus while the "good news" preached by Paul to the Gentiles concerned the purpose of the death of the Lord Jesus--"For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him" (2 Cor.5:21).

The Jews were saved when they believed the gospel that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God. The Gentiles were saved when they believed the gospel that Christ died for our sins. That can only mean that the gospel which Paul preached to the Gentiles is a different gospel than the one Peter preached to the Jews.
 

Clete

Truth Smacker
Silver Subscriber
Clete,

Jesus did not suffer the torments of hell and I never said he did but he could enter it without the anguish of a condemned sinner. All condemned will be judged by the cross and will hear the message.
There is no scriptural reason to think that Jesus went to Hell, whether to be tortured or otherwise. He DID NOT go to Hell. If you think he did, then it's on you to prove it biblically. Otherwise, it's just so much superstition and religious tradition.

Further, as I have already said, it would not be possible to refer to Hell as Paradise, whether one is being tortured there or not, and so there is really excellent reason (i.e. Jesus' own words) to reject the idea that Jesus went to Hell.

You hold that Abraham's bosom is a reference to paradise and the scriptures are cryptic concerning the location and description. If they are cryptic how can you hold on that assumption?
It is not an assumption. There is good reason to believe that they are the same place. It's clear that Abraham went to this place or else why would it be called "Abraham's bosom" and we know for a fact that Jesus and the criminal on the cross next to Jesus both went to Paradise.

Please show how the two are the same location. It is true Jesus had not ascended to the Father after he told the thief that today you will be with me in paradise.
To think that the two are different places is to ASSUME that there is more than one place where the righteous dead could find themselves. An assumption for which there is no support. Why would there be more than one such place?

When Jesus said he had not ascended to the Father he was referring to his earthly existence. The transfiguration of his body had not occurred yet.
This is your doctrine speaking, not the bible.

Prove this claim biblically, if you can.

Jesus being triune in the nature of God eternal in three distinct viable separate parts has the possibility to be in different places at one period of time.
The fact that God is a trinity has NOTHING at all to do with His ability to be in more than one place at a time.If it was simply His triune nature that allowed Him to be in more than one place, then He would be limited to being in three places at once. This is clearly not the case. This is not only unbiblical, there has never been a Christian anywhere in the history of Christianity that has ever believed this. God can be anywhere He wants to be whenever He wants to be there - period. Not only that, but all of God is there. God is triune, He is not three. There is a difference. There are not three God's. There is one singular triune God who can be, and is, precisely where He wants to be when He wants to be there.

Also, God can count one day as a thousand years as in “to day“ which Jesus told the thief. I also offered that Christ gave up his spirit at death and it did returned to the hands of the Father who abides in heaven. Jesus the man was still here in the grave or tomb. You did agree in a sense that Jesus descended. How are the grave and descension synonymous. Descension means leaving the place of location by going downward. I submit to you that Christ at death was separated into body, soul, and spirit just as we are at death. Three but separate and each separate part still viably triune. Man is not viable at death and loses his distinction but not God, the Son, or the Spirit during separation. I know I’m sounding cryptic to you, again.
What you are sounding like is someone who believes a doctrine that has no biblical or rational support.

You just got through acknowledging that Jesus said that He hadn't ascended to the Father but then find a way to rationalize around it so that a sentence later you can claim that in fact He has done precisely that. Why do that? Why not simply believe what Jesus said and drop the doctrine that teaches the contrary?

Ecc 12:7 Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it.
Gen 2:7 And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul.

The breath of God is the spirit given to man and will return to God. The flesh of man will return to dust. The soul of man is living and will not die. The spirit can not go to hell, it came from God. Do you hold to some form of annihilationism or do you believe that a essence of God will be condemned in hell? [/quote]
I hold that you and I don't know the difference between a "spirit" and a "soul" to nearly the degree to which it would be necessary for you to hold such a doctrine in any dogmatic way. In the original language, the word for spirit and breath is the same word. You have to look at the context to discern the difference in meaning and the term is often used with both meanings in mind at once.

This is what we know. People who reject God will, in one form or another, spent eternity separated from God in what we call Hell. Is is possible, based on the passages you cite that some part of those who end up in Hell is returned to God? Sure, it's possible but nothing of what make the person who they are. No conscious portion of anyone who is in Hell is going to also be in Heaven with God and so I see no profit in insisting upon a doctrine that teaches that Hell bound people are not only disembodied spirits but also dis-spirited souls.

Eph 4:9 (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth?
Eph 4:10 He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.

…I want you to address the underlined above. Did Jesus descend to the lower parts of the earth? Is this scripture just supposed to remain cryptic?
What do you mean "supposed to remain cryptic"? It is cryptic! I'm not trying to make it cryptic and I'm surely not attempting to make it MORE cryptic than it already is. I'm simply willing to acknowledge that it says what it says and that I don't know precisely what it means.

This is what I do know.

Jesus descended first into the lower parts of the earth, that Jesus went to Paradise, that another human being was there with Him and that, as of His resurrection from the dead, Jesus had not yet ascended to the Father.

Now, if you want to claim that the lower parts of the Earth refers to something other than the "Paradise" that Jesus Himself said that He was going to and/or that "Paradise" is a place separate from "Abraham's Bosom" and that there were therefore two different places for the righteous dead before the cross, then it is on you to prove it biblically.

Rev2:7..He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the tree of life, which is in the midst of the paradise of God.

I find that I am arguing with myself over the duality present with the truth of mid acts theology in reference to two gospels existing at the same time.

Paradise holds the tree of life which is Christ no longer a figure as in the garden or walking the earth. The Spirit is speaking to the church that understands the finished work and recognizes who Christ is. Paradise appears to be as Eden with in the very presence of God the Father in heaven.
Your confusion comes, in part, from having read Revelation and thinking that it written too or about the Body of Christ. John's ministry was to "the Circumcision" not to the Body (see Gal. 2:9). It is an utterly Jewish book and is about Jewish believers and the nation of Israel.

Further, the Tree of Life is not Jesus. It is a tree. A real tree with real fruit. In fact, it not only has real fruit, it has twelve different fruits, only one of which comes ripe at a time, one fruit for each month. Rev. 22:2 (So much for there not being any time in heaven).


Clete


P.S. On a side note: When you address a post to someone as you did this last post, if you'll put an @ before their name, it will cause them to be notified that they've been "mentioned" in a post. I'll do it here with your screen name and it'll generate a notification for you so you'll see what I mean....
[MENTION=19314]Cntrysner[/MENTION]

If you don't do that and you've not used the QUOTE tag to quote their post, then whoever you're speaking to won't get any notification that your post exists and they'll have to just happen upon it. I might have gone several days without knowing that your post existed if I hadn't decided to pull up the thread for other reasons.
 

turbosixx

New member
Sorry it's been a while. Been very busy and chewed on your comments a bit.

No, He absolutely cannot! Not and continue to be the consistent God that He has been since eternity past.

Do you really not think through the things you say at all?

If God could just arbitrarily interchange apostles for no reason at all, as your hypothesis suggests, then on what basis would any of the Twelve Apostles trust God to keep His promises toward them about anything else? If the Twelve can't trust God then why can you?

God is not arbitrary, T6! He does things for a reason. Your grasping at theological straws is devastating not just to your own doctrinal coherence but to the coherence of the entire Christian faith!
Look, it's pretty clear who's being emotional here and it isn't me. This example proves MY POINT, not yours and all it takes to see it is a little bit of knowledge about biblical history.

It isn't just Dan that's missing from the Revelation list, Ephraim is missing as well (See the list of the tribes given in Numbers 1).

Both the tribe of Dan and the tribe of Ephraim were removed because they rebelled against God and worshiped idols.
Judges 18:30 Then the children of Dan set up for themselves the carved image; and Jonathan the son of Gershom, the son of Manasseh, and his sons were priests to the tribe of Dan until the day of the captivity of the land. 31 So they set up for themselves Micah’s carved image which he made, all the time that the house of God was in Shiloh.

Hosea 4:17 “Ephraim is joined to idols,
Let him alone.

Indeed, the entire nation of Israel would have been completely wiped totally out except for Moses because of idolatry if not for Moses talking God out of it.
Exodus 32: 9 And the Lord said to Moses, “I have seen this people, and indeed it is a stiff-necked people! 10 Now therefore, let Me alone, that My wrath may burn hot against them and I may consume them. And I will make of you a great nation.”

11 Then Moses pleaded with the Lord his God, and said: “Lord, why does Your wrath burn hot against Your people whom You have brought out of the land of Egypt with great power and with a mighty hand? 12 Why should the Egyptians speak, and say, ‘He brought them out to harm them, to kill them in the mountains, and to consume them from the face of the earth’? Turn from Your fierce wrath, and repent from this harm to Your people. 13 Remember Abraham, Isaac, and Israel, Your servants, to whom You swore by Your own self, and said to them, ‘I will multiply your descendants as the stars of heaven; and all this land that I have spoken of I give to your descendants, and they shall inherit it forever.’ ” 14 So the Lord repented from the harm which He said He would do to His people.

And indeed, it is because of unbelief that God cut Israel off (Romans 11:20 and elsewhere) and did not give them their kingdom shortly after the ascension of Jesus Christ. Paul cites Jeremiah 18 as the principle by which God decided to cut off Israel. Jeremiah 18 may, in fact, be the single most important chapter in the whole bible. Here's the primary point the chapter makes...
Jeremiah 18: 7 The instant I speak concerning a nation and concerning a kingdom, to pluck up, to pull down, and to destroy it, 8 if that nation against whom I have spoken turns from its evil, I will repent of the disaster that I thought to bring upon it. 9 And the instant I speak concerning a nation and concerning a kingdom, to build and to plant it, 10 if it does evil in My sight so that it does not obey My voice, then I will repent concerning the good with which I said I would benefit it.

Now what's the point of having gone through all that?

The point is that GOD DOES THINGS FOR A REASON!!!! Which has been my point all along.

God did not simply decide for some arbitrary reason to drop the tribe of Dan and replace it with Menasseh. HE DID NOT DO THAT! Dan would still be a tribe of Israel today if they had obeyed God and not rebelled and worshiped idols.
I never said God swapped Dan for no reason. If Dan had been the only tribe to worship idols and other gods, I could agree with your point. As you pointed out, all of Israel worshiped idols. I honestly don’t know why He chose to swap Dan.

Which of the Twelve Apostle rebelled against God, T6? There was one! It was Judas Iscariot. The response to which was "Let another take his office.", which was done. The remaining eleven apostles which had been given authority by Jesus Himself to act in His absence even to the point of forgiving and/or the retention of sins (John 20:21-23) and they, after much prayer chose two and cast lots (Proverbs 18:18) to see which of those two God approved. The lot fell to Matthias. His validity as one of the Twelve as further confirmed on the Day of Pentecost when all Twelve were filled by the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:1-4).

Now, which of those twelve fell into disbelief, T6? Because if you want to think you have biblical support for one of them being replaced by Paul then that's the case you're going to have to make. Otherwise, you're just blowing smoke and grasping at any theological straw you can find in order to maintain the biblically baseless idea that there are thirteen men who's names are going to be on the twelve foundations of the New Jerusalem and thirteen men sitting on twelve thrones ruling over it.
God has in the past replaced an original with one who came later to keep the number at 12. It has been my OPINION that God might swap one of the apostles for Paul if He decided to. I’m not married to the idea.

But it was Israel that came first, not the Body. The same Christ saves both Jew and Gentile and whether one was saved under this dispensation or the previous one, we are all members of the household of God of which Christ is the chief cornerstone.
That’s the way I understand it but when you use scripture and leave out a phrase in the middle, I can only surmise you do so because that phrase doesn't fit your doctrine. In between household of God and corner stone you left out built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets. The way I understand it, that phrase fits in just fine.

Paul isn't saying that we've all been made member of the nation of Israel, which is the only point I can imagine you're attempting to imply here.
Not physical members but spiritually. I see things spiritually. When Paul says were are circumcised and are Abrahams offspring, that's spiritual not physical. That is what made someone a member of God's house in the OT physically. We meet those requirements spiritually. We are now the circumcision.
3 For we are the circumcision, who worship by the Spirit of God and glory in Christ Jesus and put no confidence in the flesh—

Paul says the Gentiles were separated from Christ. In the OT, Christ was with the Jews and they drank from the rock which was Christ. That’s why he says the Gentiles were alienated from the commonwealth of Israel. The Jews were God’s household, not the Gentiles.
Heb. 3:2 who was faithful to him who appointed him, just as Moses also was faithful in all God's house.

On the contrary, it's the Jews who have been made like Gentiles who now all have the same opportunity for membership in that household.
Yes, in this dispensation they are saved the same. At the cross Jesus broke down the dividing wall and made Jew and Gentile into one new man. One body. At the cross. After the cross Jesus told the 12 to preach the gospel to all nations. Not just the Jews but to every creature. This gospel was for all but to the Jew first.

There is now no longer any advantage to being an Israelite. There is no longer any corporate relationship with God available through the nation of Israel. Now that relationship is available to all by grace through faith in Christ.
Absolutely. The OT Jews/Gentiles were a physical representation of the spiritually saved/lost in this dispensation.

But God didn't cut ALL of Israel off. He didn't cut off those who believed. The Twelve and their followers who were saved under the "Kingdom Gospel" (i.e. the dispensation of law) remained under that dispensational program until their physical death, for the gifts and the calling of God are irrevocable. (Rom. 11:29 also 1 Corinthians 7:17-20). And so, for a time, there were two groups of believers. One was ministered to from Jerusalem while Paul went to the whole rest of the world.
Galatians 2:9 9 and when James, Peter, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised.
On Paul’s travels when he went to the synagogues and preached to the Jews, what gospel did he preach to them, “his” gospel or the same as the 12? If it was “his” gospel, why did these Jews get to hear the grace gospel and those the 12 were preaching to did not?

I've done far more than that and you know it. I've made directly relevant and substantively biblical arguments throughout. NONE of which you have responded to in any meaningful way except to suggest that God could just arbitrarily drop one apostle for another.
You’ve done a great job and I’m sorry I haven’t returned in kind. I am doing my best. You’re definitely better at this than I.

Do you remember when I mentioned (probably on a different thread) how just about all the books you'll find on any number of different theological subjects will basically have the same format, regardless of which side of the issue the book is intended to support? If you have two books about eternal security, for example, one arguing for it and the other against it, both books will have roughly the same format. Each will spend 80% of it's pages focusing on it's collection of proof texts while the last portion of the book (usually past what most readers will make it through) is spent explaining how the problem texts don't mean what they seem to mean. That is the way 90+% of the Christian world does their theology. They take a subject, look up all the relevant biblical material and pick a side to take literally and a side to explain away. This bottom up approach (i.e. forming a big picture based on a collection of details) is what they do! That's what you do! Whether you think that's what you do or not, this thread alone is proof enough that it is what you do.
I remember. If I remember my reply was that when I see people explain away problem text, I see them taking out words/phrases or adding words that aren't there or they will pull it out of context and say it stands alone.

In other words, you have no over-arching premise that has been intentionally thought through and understood which informs your reading of scripture and your understanding of doctrine as a whole. You simply have a collection of doctrines that you hold to and you have learned how those specific doctrines are defended. But there's no thread that runs through and holds them all together as a cohesive integrated whole.
The thread I understand that holds it all together is Jesus came into the world to save sinners. Both Jew and Gentile, which was the whole world, were sinners and needed a savior.

And please understand that that is not said to be insulting. I was in that exact place for decades! I totally loved God and was totally saved and a totally legitimate member of the Body of Christ who loved the bible and read it all the time and did bible studies and watched Christian television and wanted constantly to better understand God and His word. And I'm absolutely convinced that all of that is just as true of you as it was of me when I thought the way you do now.

What I was always doing was looking for a better, more complete and eloquent way of understanding individual doctrines. In other words, given a particular doctrine, my position on that doctrine would have been whichever position I had heard the best argument for up to that point in my life. And while I held to some doctrines more strongly than others, I wasn't married to any particular side of any disputable issue. If you could present to me an argument that I found more compelling, it was time for me to change my doctrine and I did so.

When I was young that translated into my holding all kinds of what I now know to have been crazy positions on all sorts of things. I remember a time when nearly all of my end times doctrines were informed almost exclusively by The World Wide Church of God, which aired a television show on TBN back in the 80s. I had no particular affinity for the WWCG nor for anything else I saw on TBN but the point is that they made an argument and it was a darned good one at that, I might add. I also remember a little booklet I read called "88 Reasons Why The Rapture Will Be in 1988" and I believed every single word of it! I had joined the Army after high school and was in basic training during Rosh Hash-Ana (Sept. 1988) and FULLY expected not to make it to graduation. You want to talk about having my faith shaken! Holy smokes! Of course, I know now that ALL 88 reasons were flatly wrong! Image that! Writing a book with 88 reasons for something where you get 100% of those reasons wrong. That's the power of paradigm and of proof-texting!
Wow, I can’t imagine having your faith shaken like that. I don’t disagree with the power of a paradigm and the ability of those to back it up with proof-texting. The different views of scripture run the gamut and they believe they can back it by scripture. However, they all can’t be right and realistically very few are.

Reason, that's were!

Scripture is useless without reason! You can get everything from Southern Baptist doctrine to Catholicism to Branch Davidianism and everything in between from scripture if you do not use sound reason and employ proper hermeneutical principles and a top down (i.e. from the big picture down to the details) approach to the reading and interpretation of the bible.

Further, as I've tried and tried to explain to you, our disagreement is not based on bible verses anyway. Every bible verse you quote in support of your doctrine is actually in support of mine! I do NOT have problem texts! You think I do but that's because you read them from within your theological paradigm!

Now, I know that you aren't convinced that what I just said is true but just for a moment, suppose that it is and then tell me how I'm supposed to proceed down a path where I defend what you see as problem texts for me and proof texts for you? How could that possibly be profitable? It would be like describing the color blue by pointing at the sky on a cloudy day! It doesn't work!

Imagine for a moment that the shoe was on the other foot here. Imagine, for example, that you were trying to convince a Branch Davidian that David Koresh was not any sort of Messiah. Those folks believe that (to this day) and they can argue with you until you're blue in the face and dead as a hammer without hardly stopping to take a breath between quoting bible verses. David Koresh had whole books of the bible memorized and every word he'd read to his followers was filtered through their twisted paradigm filter and was turned into something that fully supported their doctrine. There was/is no way you could ever convince any of them that they've got one syllable of their doctrine wrong by quoting bible verses to them. All you'd do is cement them further into their delusion.

Now that's an extreme example that doesn't fit exactly because those folks aren't at all worried about being rational. They have no problem with redefining common words (not the least of which is the word "Messiah", by the way.) as well as loading passages up with meaning that the text itself cannot support. Neither of us are in that kind of boat but the point is simply that you cannot just ignore the paradigm through which the scripture is being understood and think that quoting a passage of scripture aught to be enough to persuade someone away from their doctrine. It's far more complicated than that.

And so, to reiterate once again, I have no problem with having passages of scripture to support one's doctrine - quite the contrary. It's simply that I know from experience that to focus on proof-texts is fruitless at best and counter productive at worst.
You make some good points. Reason along with scripture, I agree with that. The pieces must reasonably fit together. In the example of the Brand Dividians, there is plenty of scripture to refute David as being the Messiah. What that looks like to me is what Paul told Timothy, how people will find teachers that say what they want to hear. It’s on the hearers to be like the Bereans.
Even after all your points I still don’t see a problem with using scripture to refute error. Jesus Himself used scripture to bring to light the error of men. Also, Paul tells us that scripture is profitable for correction. I don’t believe God has given us a book that we cannot understand. It can at times be hard to understand but we can understand it if we try.

Wow! The power of paradigm is utterly insurmountable except by God Himself!

The question isn't why he would have baptized (which I've explained already) but why he existed at all (i.e. as an apostle)?!
The question why would he baptize is a valid question. If Paul's commission was different it's not reasonable for Paul to baptize believers just as Jesus instructed the 12. Paul actions are exactly like the commission Jesus gave to the 12.
It wasn’t in this thread you “explained” it. If I remember correctly, you said, not explained, that baptism was like the spiritual gifts and would fade away. I totally disagree with that. The spiritual gifts had a purpose that is no longer necessary. The bible tells us the purpose of baptism, that purpose is still necessary today. In your understanding, what is the purpose of water baptism?

If what you claim is true and Paul preached the same message as Peter, which it flatly isn't, why in the world did God need Paul at all?
If Paul did not preach the same sermon in Acts 13 that Peter did in Acts 2, how is it different?

It’s my OPNINON that God chose the Jewish champion who was trying to destroy the rebellious sect to be the one to work with the Gentiles. Oh how that must have hurt the Jewish leaders. Also, it’s my OPINION that because he persecuted Christ he was to suffer for Christ.

Why was Paul taught what he repeatedly referred to as "my gospel" (Romans 2:16; Romans 16:25; I Tim. 1:11 & 2 Tim. 2:8) by direct divine revelation? (Gal. 1:12; 2 Cor. 12:7; Eph. 3:3)
Where did the 12 get the gospel that they preached?

Why, if he was preaching the same thing, was he sent, again by divine revelation, to explain what he was preaching to the Twelve? (Gal. 2:2)
in order to make sure I was not running or had not run in vain. Not the 12 possibly running in vain but Paul.

Why, if he was preaching the same thing as Peter, did he have to get in Peter's face about the gospel? (Gal. 2:11)
Peter was weak. Peter was being true to the gospel but fell back into his old habits. Doesn’t mean they were preaching different gospels.

Why, if Paul was preaching the same thing as Peter, does Peter say that some things that Paul teaches are "hard to understand"? (2 Peter 3:16)
Paul was the apostle to the Gentiles. That was something very hard for the Jews who had been God’s ONLY people for a couple thousand years to understand.

Where, besides Paul, do we read anything like "If you become circumcised, Christ will profit you nothing."? (Gal. 5:2)
Is it wrong to get circumcised? No, what they were doing was going back and trusting in the old law.

Where did Peter ever say anything resembling "in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision avails anything"? (Gal. 5:6 & Gal. 6:15)
Paul’s writings are complementary to the other writers.

Was it Paul's followers who Luke, in the book of Acts, records as being "zealous for the law" or was that Jewish believers that followed James and the Twelve? (Acts 21)
Did Paul’s followers NOT want to go back to the law in Galatians?

There are whole denominations that ignore Paul almost entirely! Go to a Seventh Day Adventist church and see how often they preach from the Pauline Epistles. It happens but not very often. Go to a church were modern Messianic Jews congregate. You'll likely not hear a syllable of Paul's writings in one of those churches if you attended for a month of Sundays. In fact, many of them don't even consider Paul to be a valid apostle and think that his writings are a deception. Then, of course, there are those on the opposite side of that spectrum and think that the book of James is invalid and shouldn't have been included in the bible because they can't reconcile it with - who? - Peter? - no, not Peter and not John either! - it's Paul that they can't reconciled with the plain reading of book of James.
I take the middle ground. I see Paul as neither invalid nor as an apostle on his own.

But you somehow think that Paul's writing are just more of the same thing that exists in the Gospels, Acts and the writings of Peter, James and John. And I'm here to tell you that the only reason your brain is telling you that is because of your doctrine which you bring to the reading of scripture.
In your understanding, were the books of Peter, James, John and Hebrews written to Christians?



P.S. Note that I quote the bible using the New King James almost exclusively but when I quoted Exodus 32 and Jeremiah 18 I changed the word "relent" to "repent". The translators of pretty much all of the English versions of the bible, including the New King James, were pretty much all Calvinists and even though the word in the original language (nacham - Strong's H5162) means "repent", the Calvinist translators just could not bring themselves to translate it that way so they used "relent" instead. The King James uses "repent" but I like using the New King James because it is far easier to read. So I just change the word 'relent' to 'repent'.
Thanks for the clarification.
 
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turbosixx

New member
Yes, but let us consider the central teaching of the gospel of the preaching of the kingdom (Lk.9:2,6) which both the Twelve and Paul preached to the Jews (Acts 20:25). That gospel is the same one Paul described here:

"Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God, (Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,) Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh; And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead" (Ro.1:1-4).​

This gospel was promised before by the prophets in the Old Testament so it was not a gospel which was kept secret. Instead, it declared that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God. And all those who believed that gospel were born of God upon believing it (1 Jn.5:1-5; Jn.20:30-31).

The gospel which Paul preached to the Gentiles had been kept secret so it cannot possibibly be the same "good news" which was promised by the OT prophets:

"Now to him who is able to establish you in accordance with my gospel, the message I proclaim about Jesus Christ, in keeping with the revelation of the mystery hidden for long ages past, but now revealed and made known through the prophetic writings by the command of the eternal God, so that all the Gentiles might come to the obedience that comes from faith—to the only wise God be glory forever through Jesus Christ!"
(Ro.16:25-27).​
I'm curious what exactly do you believe was kept secret?

The "good news" preached by the Twelve to the Jews concerned the "identity" of the Lord Jesus while the "good news" preached by Paul to the Gentiles concerned the purpose of the death of the Lord Jesus--"For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him" (2 Cor.5:21).

The Jews were saved when they believed the gospel that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God. The Gentiles were saved when they believed the gospel that Christ died for our sins. That can only mean that the gospel which Paul preached to the Gentiles is a different gospel than the one Peter preached to the Jews.

Compare Peters sermon in Acts 2 and Paul's sermon in Acts 13. Are they not the same sermon? If Paul preached a different sermon than Peter to convert people to Christ, please point it out.

The 12 were commissioned to preach the gospel to ALL creation and baptize the believers. That is exactly what Paul did. In his last recorded conversion we see him baptizing believers. Not only that, but they had already submitted to water baptism before but Paul baptized them again because it wasn't the proper baptism.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
I'm curious what exactly do you believe was kept secret?

"But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, even the hidden wisdom, which God ordained before the world unto our glory: Which none of the princes of this world knew: for had they known it, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory"
(1 Cor.2:7-8).​

The purpose of the Cross was kept secret until it was revealed to Paul.

Compare Peters sermon in Acts 2 and Paul's sermon in Acts 13. Are they not the same sermon? If Paul preached a different sermon than Peter to convert people to Christ, please point it out.

On the day of Pentecost Peter used the facts of the death and resurrection of the Lord Jesus to prove that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God. And those who believed that "good news" or "gospel" were born of God upon believing that truth (1 Jn.5:1-5; Jn.20:30-31).

Are you not able to even understand that the gospel which was preached to the Gentiles by Paul and the same gospel by which they were saved is the fact that Christ died for our sins? Can you not even recognize the simple truth that gospel is different from the one which declared that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God?

Are you not able to understand that a gospel which was promised by the OT prophets cannot possibly be the same gospel described as being the "hidden wisdom" of God?

The 12 were commissioned to preach the gospel to ALL creation and baptize the believers.

Then why didn't they do that?
 
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