ECT WHAT DOES MATT 28:19 REALLY SAYING !!

[turbosixx]

Hi and here is why Gal 3:28 is IMPORTANT verses in Paul's letters !!

#1 The CONTEXT of Galatians is ONLY speaking to the Body of Christ and NOT to those under the Law or Apostles !!

#2 , Gal 3:28 says their IS NEITHER /ENI Jews " In Christ " and that is in the CONTINUOUS PRESENT TENSE OF THE dispensation of the Grace of God !!

#3 , In Matt 28:19 the CONTEXT and verse 16 says He is speaking to the 11 disciples and the Greek word ETHNOS has many meaning , as GENTILES , RACE , HEATHEN , JEWSIH NATION as John 11:48 where it says " Romans shall come and take away both our place and NATION, ETHNOS for it really means " Take away our Pace and Jewish Nation !!

dan p

Thanks for taking the time to explain, I appreciate it.

#1- I agree, he’s speaking to the church
#2- I agree again.
#3- This is where I have trouble. I agree ethnos is defined as you have said but the context says “all nations” not just all of one nation. We can use the bible to help determine which it is by looking at the parallel passage in Mark. There he says “Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.” That is every living soul not just one nation.

Also in Mark he calls it the gospel, same word Paul used in Romans 1 when he said it’s for the Jew and Greek which is every living soul.

 

[Interplanner]

Thanks for taking the time to explain, I appreciate it.

#1- I agree, he’s speaking to the church
#2- I agree again.
#3- This is where I have trouble. I agree ethnos is defined as you have said but the context says “all nations” not just all of one nation. We can use the bible to help determine which it is by looking at the parallel passage in Mark. There he says “Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.” That is every living soul not just one nation.

Also in Mark he calls it the gospel, same word Paul used in Romans 1 when he said it’s for the Jew and Greek which is every living soul.

Does anyone know how you are in the Body of Christ but not under the apostles? Too ridiculous.

 

[turbosixx]

Does anyone know how you are in the Body of Christ but not under the apostles? Too ridiculous.

Yep, apostles plural.

Eph. 2:19 Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the saints, and of the household of God; 20 And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone;

 

[DAN P]

Thanks for taking the time to explain, I appreciate it.

#1- I agree, he’s speaking to the church
#2- I agree again.
#3- This is where I have trouble. I agree ethnos is defined as you have said but the context says “all nations” not just all of one nation. We can use the bible to help determine which it is by looking at the parallel passage in Mark. There he says “Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.” That is every living soul not just one nation.

Also in Mark he calls it the gospel, same word Paul used in Romans 1 when he said it’s for the Jew and Greek which is every living soul.

Hi and I checked John 11:48 and verse 51 , and the KJV has NATION in the singular BUT in the Greek text It say NATIONS /ETHNOS and the S on the end of ETHNLOS makes it PLURAL !!

Matt 28:happens when The 144,000 preach to their Jewish brothers during the first part of the Jacob;s trouble as the Jews are SCATTERED all over the NATIONS / ETHNOS !!

So , then you will have to agree with me !!

dan p

 

[Lilstu]

The 4th Century Church Historian, EUSEBIUS, wrote a famous book called ""THE PROOF OF THE GOSPEL"'

In 7 places Eusebius quotes Matthew 28:19 and NEVER includes the Trinitarian formula The Father, Son and Holy Ghost.

(1) Book III, Chapter 7, 136 (a-d), p. 157

(2) Book III, Chapter 6, 132 (a), p. 152

(3) Book III, Chapter 7, 138 (c), p. 159

(4) Book IX, Chapter 11, 445 (c), p. 175

(5) Book I, Chapter 3, 6 (a), p. 20

(6) Book I, Chapter 5, 9 (a), p. 24

(7) Book I, Chapter 6, 24 (c), p. 42

This is proof that sometime after the 4th century the gospels were being edited.

When the Roman Catholic Church was "keeper" of the NT Scriptures the Monks probably edited the text.

 

[Lilstu]

Is Matthew 28:19 Jesus' Words?

Is Matthew 28:19 Jesus' Words?

It is common knowledge among Bible students that Matthew 28:19 was not in the original manuscripts but was a later insertion by an exuberant monk. If you do the research you will find that this is true.

"""Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit""

Supposedly, this is a command by Jesus to his followers to baptize in the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit.

If Matthew 28:19 were legitimate, we would expect that Jesus' followers would be going out to baptize in the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit.

But this is not the case.
In the entire New Testment there is no record of anyone being baptized in the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit.

On the contrary, the record shows that people were baptized in the name of Jesus.

Acts 2:38
Peter said to them, "Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.

Acts 8:16
For He had not yet fallen upon any of them; they had simply been baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.

Acts 10:48
And he ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked him to stay on for a few days.

Acts 19:5
When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.

Romans 6:3
Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus have been baptized into His death?

Galatians 3:27
For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ.


"""Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit""

It would appear that Jesus was changing his mind concerning prosletyzing the Gentiles with Matthew 28:19.

Can God change his mind? Or did Jesus get new instructions from God?

Previously Jesus had said......Matthew 10:5
These twelve Jesus sent out after instructing them: "Do not go in the way of the Gentiles, and do not enter any city of the Samaritans;

Now Peter was Jesus' main man, surely the rock had gotten the word of the Great Commission.
So how come when the Gentile, Cornelius, joins the flock Peter seems not to know about the new policy on Gentiles.
Then when Peter explains everything to the rest of the brothers, they seem ignorant of the rules change.

IMO Peter and his brothers didn't know about the Great Commission
because Matthew 28:19 is a later insertion into the Bible.

YOU MAY BE DISCUSSING A VERSE THAT IS NOT THE ACTUAL WORDS SPOKEN BY JESUS.

 

[DAN P]

The 4th Century Church Historian, EUSEBIUS, wrote a famous book called ""THE PROOF OF THE GOSPEL"'

In 7 places Eusebius quotes Matthew 28:19 and NEVER includes the Trinitarian formula The Father, Son and Holy Ghost.

(1) Book III, Chapter 7, 136 (a-d), p. 157

(2) Book III, Chapter 6, 132 (a), p. 152

(3) Book III, Chapter 7, 138 (c), p. 159

(4) Book IX, Chapter 11, 445 (c), p. 175

(5) Book I, Chapter 3, 6 (a), p. 20

(6) Book I, Chapter 5, 9 (a), p. 24

(7) Book I, Chapter 6, 24 (c), p. 42

This is proof that sometime after the 4th century the gospels were being edited.

When the Roman Catholic Church was "keeper" of the NT Scriptures the Monks probably edited the text.

Hi and I believe that God kept Matt 28:19 , in the bible !!

dan p

 

[Lilstu]

Hi and I believe that God kept Matt 28:19 , in the bible !!

dan p

Matthew was very careful to use the phrase ""KINGDOM OF HEAVEN"" 31 times in his Gospel.
Yet in four instances, Matthew 12:28, 19:24, 21:31, and 21:43 the text of Matthew's Gospel uses the phrase ""KINGDOM OF GOD""
Do you suppose that these verses are the work of a later editor who was not as careful to say ""KINGDOM OF HEAVEN"" but instead wrote ""KINGDOM OF GOD"" ????

 

[DAN P]

Matthew was very careful to use the phrase ""KINGDOM OF HEAVEN"" 31 times in his Gospel.
Yet in four instances, Matthew 12:28, 19:24, 21:31, and 21:43 the text of Matthew's Gospel uses the phrase ""KINGDOM OF GOD""
Do you suppose that these verses are the work of a later editor who was not as careful to say ""KINGDOM OF HEAVEN"" but instead wrote ""KINGDOM OF GOD"" ????

Hi and the KINGDOM OF GOD and the KINGDOM of Heaven are used interchangeable ONLY in Matthew !!

dan p