How so? Women aren't unconscious when they choose to have an abortion..or when prohibited at such. Depending on the situation.
Be that as it may, it's already been granted (let us suppose) that a woman's actual consent doesn't matter in at least some circumstances. That means that the general rule: "A woman's actual consent always matters" does not hold. If her actual consent at least sometimes does not matter (when not present), then is it really so far of a leap to say: "Well, in this case, even though she can consent, it still doesn't matter for x, y and z reasons"? If her consent is irrelevent in one case, there's no
a priori reason why her consent can't be irrelevent in other cases.
In point of fact, a woman's consent, even when present, is irrelevent in other cases. A woman cannot legally consent to possess and use illegal narcotics or to commit suicide or be euthanized. In those cases, her consent is irrelevent. In those cases, who appeals to "the right to privacy" or the supremacy of a woman's autonomy and power to decide for herself to what she does and does not consent?
Break down the similarities for me between (post hoc) assenting to rape and (post hoc) assenting to medical attention in order to preserve your life.
lain:
You're arguing: "Her actual consent isn't present, but who knows, she can decide that for herself when she wakes up." Why can't I say the same thing about a sexual encounter with an unconscious woman? You're applying reasoning to one case that you would never apply to a different set of cases. It's special pleading.
In fact, Elo. and peacemaker had a thread about a man who had a sexual encounter with his wife, who had severe, late stage alzheimers. He was arrested because no actual consent. Why can't I reply, using your same arguments, "but there was implicit, habitual consent"?