The World God so Loved !

beloved57

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A writer writes and I agree regarding John 3:16 and how its comprehended:

A critically important question which needs to be asked of those who hold to a false understanding of John 3:16, is ‘How is this verse, in particular, to be reconciled with John 17:23 where Jesus, praying to the Father concerning those that were given to Him, says:' “I in THEM, and Thou in Me, that THEY may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that Thou hast sent Me, and hast LOVED THEM, as Thou hast loved Me.” Here, Jesus is saying that the unity of love between the Father and the Son, and all those who are of the Father and the Son, would be evidence to the world that the Father has loved all those whom He has given to the Son—those who believed, and those who would believe, in Jesus (see Jn. 17:20). Again, we see a distinction made between those that are of the world, and those whom the Father has loved. If world did mean every individual in John 3:16, this verse in John 17 would have been a prime opportunity for Jesus to re-affirm that popular assumption. Yet Christ says NOTHING in John 17:23 of the Father’s alleged love for the world, but rather distinguishes those He does love from the world! This reaffirms the fact that Christ said nothing in John 3:16 pertaining to any universal love of God for all humanity. There is no explicit reference to any universal love of God, nor can any rightly infer such a love from that verse, or any other Scripture. The truth of God aligns with all Scripture, for all Scripture is the truth of God. The Lord Jesus only speaks of God’s love being FOR THOSE WHOM HE HAS GIVEN TO HIS SON. The Lord speaks voluminously of those whom the Father had given Him throughout the seventeenth chapter of the Gospel of John (see Jn. 17:2,6,9,11,12,24), but never a word about any alleged love for all individuals without exception is in the least bit traceable.https://www.godsonlygospel.com/for-god-so-lovedwho-part-22

In a nutshell if Jn 3:16 means God loved everyone in the world without exception, the distinction being made in Jn 17 made between the world and them God loves is meaningless !
 

JudgeRightly

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A writer writes and I agree regarding John 3:16 and how its comprehended:



In a nutshell if Jn 3:16 means God loved everyone in the world without exception, the distinction being made in Jn 17 made between the world and them God loves is meaningless !

Because you say so?
 

beloved57

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We need to learn to think biblically to understand scriptures, for instance if Jn 3:16 meant that God loved every individual in the world without exception, why did Jesus He prays not for the world as a whole Jn 17:9 coupled with, why did God not give everyone to Christ to die for, as He gave some to Him Jn 6:37

37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
 

beloved57

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The world God so loved in Jn 3:16 wasnt everyone without exception, but the world of His Sons, the world of the sons of God, who Juoh also identifes here 1 Jn 3:1

Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not.

Jn 11:52

52 And not for that nation only, but that also he should gather together in one the children of God that were scattered abroad.[throughout the whole world denoting gentiles]
 

beloved57

Well-known member
Those whom God Loves, Christ Loves, whom is God, they have an intimacy with them, like Christ so loved His Church that He gave Himself for it, and all of its members Eph 5:25

25 Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it;

Yet Christ plainly says to some here that He never knew them Matt 7:23

23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.

If this be so, He never at anytime knew them, which word denotes intimacy, they could not have ever been loved by Him, which therefore exclude them from the World God Loved in Jn 3:16 and the Church Christ Loved in Eph 5:25.

In Matt 7:23 the word never is important, its the adverb oudepote and means:

not even at any time, i.e. never at all:—neither at any time, never, nothing at any time.

There was never a time He knew them, therefore never a time He loved them !
 

beloved57

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Since in Johns writings and the need of consistency, there is a difference in the world of Jn 17:9,23 and the world of Jn 3:16 which the Father so loved, Jn 3:16 cannot be mean every individual without exception !
 

beloved57

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The World of Jn 3:16 is the World God loves, hence by giving His Son for it, He gives it life [spiritual/eternal] Jn 6:33

33 For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life[spiritual/eternal] unto the world.
 

beloved57

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The subjects in Jn 3:16 are believing and having eternal life, that in and of itself denotes everyone without exception cannot be meant, because, eternal life in the Divine Purpose is restricted says Christ to as many as the Father has given the Son Jn 17:2

2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.

The phrase " as many as" is confined to a certain definite number. So it is with those comprising the world of Jn 3:16, and Jn 3:17 !
 

beloved57

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Concerning the word whosoever in Jn 3:16 it should never be isolated, but must always be seen in conjunction with the word that follows it, ‘believeth’, as well as in its proper context. The context of John chapter 3, shows Jesus speaking with one of the religious rulers of the Jewish people, Nicodemus, who, along with all Israel, expected the Messiah would be sent for the Jews, and no other people. But the word ‘world’ and the ‘whosoever believeth’ out of that world is a reference to both Jews AND Gentiles—non-Jews. Jesus uses the word ‘world’ specifically to show that God’s elect, whom the Messiah was sent to save, do not come exclusively from the land of Israel, but are taken from among ALL nations (cf. Rev. 5:9). This matches perfectly with what was prophesied in John 11:51,52: “...that Jesus should die for that nation (Israel); and not for that nation only, but that also He should gather together in one the children of God that were scattered abroad”https://www.godsonlygospel.com/for-god-so-lovedwho-part-23
 

beloved57

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“Nicodemus believed that the Messiah’s mission was only for Israel. But here in John 3:16 the Lord says, ‘God so loved the world’. What does ‘world’ mean? Every single individual living on earth, including mountains, trees, rivers, sea, rocks, animals and everything in the world that you see? No. Remember Jesus is speaking to Nicodemus, how does a Jew, a ruler of Israel understand the meaning of ‘the world’. TO NICODEMUS ‘THE WORLD’ MEANS GENTILES!” What Nicodemus heard was ‘God so loved Gentiles, as well as Jews’. Was every Gentile intended? No, for John 11:51,52 and Acts 15:14 tell us that only the chosen Gentiles were the children of God, and, therefore, the loved ones chosen of God. The key to the proper, Biblical, understanding of John 3:16 is not to rely on one’s own comprehension of what the word ‘world’ means, not to allow oneself to be moved by a contemporary understanding of it, but to comprehend it, to be cognisant of it, in light of how Nicodemus understood it.https://www.godsonlygospel.com/for-god-so-lovedwho-part-23
 

beloved57

Well-known member
All scripture is written to Believers, John when writing to Believers in His epistel 1 Jn 4:9-11 wrote:

9 In this was manifested the love of God toward us[Believers], because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we[Believers] might live through him.

10 Herein is love, not that we[Believers] loved God, but that he loved us[Believers], and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our[believers] sins.

11 Beloved, if God so loved us[Believers], we ought also to love one another[Believers].

1 Jn 3:16

16 Hereby perceive we the love of God, because he laid down his life for us[Believers]: and we ought to lay down our lives for the brethren[Believers].

These scriptures from John, the same one who wrote Jn 3:16, should help us understand who exactly God so Loved in Jn 3:16. It surely wasnt for every individual without exception was this love of God demonstrated, but uniquely for Believers, His Sheep, the Body of Christ see Eph 5:25 !
 

JudgeRightly

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All scripture is written to Believers, John when writing to Believers in His epistel 1 Jn 4:9-11 wrote:

9 In this was manifested the love of God toward us[Believers], because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we[Believers] might live through him.

10 Herein is love, not that we[Believers] loved God, but that he loved us[Believers], and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our[believers] sins.

11 Beloved, if God so loved us[Believers], we ought also to love one another[Believers].

1 Jn 3:16

16 Hereby perceive we the love of God, because he laid down his life for us[Believers]: and we ought to lay down our lives for the brethren[Believers].

These scriptures from John, the same one who wrote Jn 3:16, should help us understand who exactly God so Loved in Jn 3:16. It surely wasnt for every individual without exception was this love of God demonstrated, but uniquely for Believers, His Sheep, the Body of Christ see Eph 5:25 !

Reading your beliefs into the text will lead you to wrong conclusions.

It's what you have done here.
 

Right Divider

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Well who was John writing to in the Epistles of John according to the scripture I provided ?
John was one of the apostles that agreed to go only to the circumcision.
So there is no doubt that he was also writing to them.
Gal 2:9 KJV And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.
 

JudgeRightly

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Well who was John writing to in the Epistles of John according to the scripture I provided?

John was writing, as RD said, to the circumcision, Jews, Jewish believers.

He was not writing to the Body of Christ.
 

beloved57

Well-known member
John was writing, as RD said, to the circumcision, Jews, Jewish believers.

He was not writing to the Body of Christ.
He was writing to believers, that they were jews is not relevant. Nothing says they werent of the Body of Christ, jews who believe are part of the body of Christ.

You think when John wrote 1 Jn 4:9-11

9 In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.

10 Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.

11 Beloved, if God so loved us, we ought also to love one another.

You think that is only for Jews ?
 
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