Repent and Be Saved

Ben Masada

New member
Repent and Be Saved.

Repent and Be Saved.

And many of those who sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, some to shame and everlasting contempt. (Daniel 12:2 NKJV)​

Repentance is based on a sense of shame and everlasting contempt for past actions.

Daniel 12:2 has absolutely nothing to do with bodily resurrection. According to the Faith of Daniel which was Judaism once dead no one will ever rise again. The point of that scripture is about the exile. At the end of the exile, those who return to the Land of Israel their move is embellished with being a move into everlasting life. Those who prefer to remain in exile it is akin to everlasting contempt as the slave whom freedom is given and he decides to continue in the Diaspora. That's equivalent to the prophecy of the Dry Bones of Ezekiel 37:12 when the Jews in the graves of the nations return to the Land of Israel.
 

Jacob

BANNED
Banned
1 - If I believe that repentance is necessary for righteousness, it means that there has never been a man upon earth to have done only good and never sinned. (Eccles. 7:20)

2 - No, he was not. He was a man upon earth and if you read Mat. 23:13-33, he broke the Golden Rule 15 times only in that text when he cursed the Jewish authorities with being hypocrites and brood of vipers. Would have he liked to be treated that way? I didn't think so. So, he could not have treated others the way he would not have liked to be equally treated. Mind you that the Golden Rule covers the whole second part of the Decalogue.

3 - Every single person can repent of his or her sins. He or she has only to want. That's called Freewill.

4 - Yeshua is dead and the dead has no longer any thing to do with salvation. You are forgetting that Yeshua was a Jew whose Faith denied that once dead, no one can ever return from the grave. (Eccles. 9:5,6)
Apart from Jesus all have sinned. Jesus (Yeshua) was a righteous man. He never sinned. Have you thought about the difference between a righteous person and a sinner? Do they both sin or only the sinner? Does a righteous person need to repent of their sin?

Yeshua (Jesus) made the claim that He would rise from the dead. And then He did.
 

Hawkins

Active member
Repentance is part of the New Covenant because repentance is necessity for forgiveness and reconciliation.

If you 10 children, a killer swear to kill them one by one. After killing each one, he will come to you to look for your forgiveness while saying that he will kill your another child next day.

It's no point for your forgiveness to stand under that circumstance. Your forgiveness is based on the other side stopped killing your children and regrets what he did.
 

beloved57

Well-known member
Repentance is part of the New Covenant because repentance is necessity for forgiveness and reconciliation.

If you 10 children, a killer swear to kill them one by one. After killing each one, he will come to you to look for your forgiveness while saying that he will kill your another child next day.

It's no point for your forgiveness to stand under that circumstance.

In my Faith, those my Christ died for, we were reconciled to God while we were enemies, without Faith, without repentance Rom 5:10 !

We even have forgiveness of sins while we are unbelievers !
 

Hawkins

Active member
In my Faith, those my Christ died for, we were reconciled to God while we were enemies, without Faith, without repentance Rom 5:10 !

We even have forgiveness of sins while we are unbelievers !

That quote never says that repentance is not required.

Would you try to look up the word repent or repentance in the New Testament then come back to tell what has been said?
 

Nick M

Plymouth Colonist
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Repentance is a clear evidence that Jesus did not sacrifice himself so that the sinner should take salvation for granted.

Talk about a strawman. Sheesh. At least you admitted that he did make a sacrifice and you are now without excuse.

7 He shall take the two goats and present them before the Lord at the door of the tabernacle of meeting. 8 Then Aaron shall cast lots for the two goats: one lot for the Lord and the other lot for the scapegoat. 9 And Aaron shall bring the goat on which the Lord’s lot fell, and offer it as a sin offering. 10 But the goat on which the lot fell to be the scapegoat shall be presented alive before the Lord, to make atonement upon it, and to let it go as the scapegoat into the wilderness.

This is called foreshadowing so you can see that the Lord did in fact take a sin offering and we (Christians) are set free.
 

Ben Masada

New member
Repent and Be Saved.

Repent and Be Saved.

1 - Apart from Jesus all have sinned. Jesus (Yeshua) was a righteous man. He never sinned.

2 - Have you thought about the difference between a righteous person and a sinner? Do they both sin or only the sinner? Does a righteous person need to repent of their sin?

3 - Yeshua (Jesus) made the claim that He would rise from the dead. And then He did.

1 - There is no "apart from Jesus." Jesus was a sinner too. The writer of the book of Ecclesiastes would not lie to say that "There has never been a man upon earth to have done only good and never sinned." (Eccles. 7:20) Jesus was a man upon earth for 33 years of his short life. And there is also the case of Mat. 23:13-33 with the Golden Rule. You are simply wasting your time to try to prove me wrong. You are more liable to be wrong than myself because I quote what I say and you don't.

2 - Read Ecclesiastes 7:20 again. Your answer is there. The righteous and the sinner are both under the reasoning of Eccles. 7:20.

3 -No, he did not. You cannot prove it with an eyewitness. He was a Jew whose Faith was Judaism and, according to the Tanach, once dead, no one can ever return from the grave. (II Sam. 12:23)
 

Jacob

BANNED
Banned
1 - There is no "apart from Jesus." Jesus was a sinner too. The writer of the book of Ecclesiastes would not lie to say that "There has never been a man upon earth to have done only good and never sinned." (Eccles. 7:20) Jesus was a man upon earth for 33 years of his short life. And there is also the case of Mat. 23:13-33 with the Golden Rule. You are simply wasting your time to try to prove me wrong. You are more liable to be wrong than myself because I quote what I say and you don't.

2 - Read Ecclesiastes 7:20 again. Your answer is there. The righteous and the sinner are both under the reasoning of Eccles. 7:20.

3 -No, he did not. You cannot prove it with an eyewitness. He was a Jew whose Faith was Judaism and, according to the Tanach, once dead, no one can ever return from the grave. (II Sam. 12:23)
That Jesus was a Jew is not disputed.

Ecclesiastes was written before He (Yeshua) came. Yeshua is the only one to have never sinned.
 

Ben Masada

New member
Repent and Be Saved.

Repent and Be Saved.

Repentance is part of the New Covenant because repentance is necessity for forgiveness and reconciliation.

If you 10 children, a killer swear to kill them one by one. After killing each one, he will come to you to look for your forgiveness while saying that he will kill your another child next day.

It's no point for your forgiveness to stand under that circumstance. Your forgiveness is based on the other side stopped killing your children and regrets what he did.

You are comparing Yahweh with man which is not appropriate. (Isa. 46:5) Man is gifted with emotions and the Lord is not. That's the wisdom I see in the system of the cities of refugee throughout ancient Israel when the guilty of blood used to flee to and remained there until the death of the High Priest to prevent the killing of the one who took refuge in the city by seeking revenge by the kin of blood. The point was that the urge to revenge by the kin of blood would cool down. Why? Just for the reason that man is subject to emotions and the Lord is not.
 

Ben Masada

New member
Repent and Be Saved.

Repent and Be Saved.

1 - Talk about a strawman. Sheesh. At least you admitted that he did make a sacrifice and you are now without excuse.

2 - 7 He shall take the two goats and present them before the Lord at the door of the tabernacle of meeting. 8 Then Aaron shall cast lots for the two goats: one lot for the Lord and the other lot for the scapegoat. 9 And Aaron shall bring the goat on which the Lord’s lot fell, and offer it as a sin offering. 10 But the goat on which the lot fell to be the scapegoat shall be presented alive before the Lord, to make atonement upon it, and to let it go as the scapegoat into the wilderness.

3 - This is called foreshadowing so you can see that the Lord did in fact take a sin offering and we (Christians) are set free.

1 - No, I am not. I am simply working according to your beliefs. Jesus did not sacrifice himself. He was crucified on the a political charge of insurrection. Hence his verdict nailed on the top of his cross, INRI. He could not claim to have been sacrificed because he was aware that no one can be sacrificed for the sins of another. (Jer. 31:30; Ezek. 18:20)

2 - Two goats, the scapegoat which represented Israel aka Ephraim to be sent eastward to Assyria and the other for the "Lord" aka the High Priest, Judah. But I don't see much of a sequence between the theme of this thread and your breaching of it.

3 - Free from what, from the Law! That's a dangerous doctrine because you have confirmed Paul's word that Christians have been released from the Law. (Rom. 7:6) From the reason, there is, why we get salvation in the first place.
 

Ben Masada

New member
That Jesus was a Jew is not disputed.

Ecclesiastes was written before He (Yeshua) came. Yeshua is the only one to have never sinned.

Okay, in that case, all you have to say is that Mat. 23:13-33 was not true but a forgery by the anti-Jewish Hellenist who wrote that gospel.
 

Jamie Gigliotti

New member
No, it is not. If it was important to make sacrifices, Prophet Jeremiah would not have declared that Yahweh never commanded that animal sacrifices be part of the Faith of Israel. (Jer. 7:22) We don't pray to the Lord to repent of our sins. Repentance is an act of freewill. Either we repent or we do not. If the Lord is the one Who causes us to repent, we are acting like a robot and not a human being with Freewill.
He does not force us. Through Christ and the Cross our shame is taken away and His love compels us, His Spirit compels us, but we can refuse Him.
 

Jamie Gigliotti

New member
Absolutely not! Only repentance and return to the obedience of God's Law cause our sins to be forgiven. According to the Prophets of the Lord, no one can be sacrificed for the sins of another.(Jer.31:30; Ezek.18:20)

No person can pay for the sins of another, but God can. I know the Spiritual oneness Christ shares with the Father seems to you unlike One, but that doesn't change the fact that it is true. Everything for you against Christ hinges on a narrow definition of One.
 

Nick M

Plymouth Colonist
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Jesus did not sacrifice himself.

He could have called upon 10 legions of angels. But he knew what Psalm 22 meant. And after all this time, you still don't. What is that about a snare?

2 - Two goats, the scapegoat which represented Israel aka Ephraim to be sent eastward to Assyria and the other for the "Lord" aka the High Priest, Judah.

Made up. The goat for the Lord is the one the sin goes to. This is why no man can take sin for another, only God can. And the Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of David, is God in the flesh.
 

Nick M

Plymouth Colonist
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
No person can pay for the sins of another, but God can.

Exactly. Moses didn't just put down what he wanted (or Aaron for him) it was what the Holy Spirit wanted.

9 And Aaron shall bring the goat on which the Lord’s lot fell, and offer it as a sin offering.
 

OCTOBER23

New member
Revelation 2:26 And he that overcometh, and keepeth my works unto the end, to him will I give power over the nations:
Revelation 3:5 He that overcometh, the same shall be clothed in white raiment; and I will not blot out his name out of the book of life, but I will confess his name before my Father, and before his angels.
Revelation 3:12 Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name.
Revelation 3:21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.
Revelation 21:7 He that overcometh shall inherit all things; and I will be his God, and he shall be my son.
 

Ben Masada

New member
Repent and Be Saved.

Repent and Be Saved.

I have no reason to believe what you are saying here.

No problem. Just be happy with what you believe. Only try to avoid attributing to Jesus what is not Jewish because, to use a Jew to justify the gospel of Paul aka the NT, is the same as promoting the Pauline policy of Replacement Theology.
 

Ben Masada

New member
Repent and Be Saved.

Repent and Be Saved.

He does not force us. Through Christ and the Cross our shame is taken away and His love compels us, His Spirit compels us, but we can refuse Him.

Just the opposite as Jesus was concerned as a Jew, the Cross was rather a curse upon the Jew who happened to hang to death from one. I do not refuse Yeshua ben Joseph but the "Christ" of Paul revealed in his gospel, I do. He was not Yeshua of Nazareth, the son of Joseph and Mary.
 

Ben Masada

New member
Repent and Be Saved.

Repent and Be Saved.

No person can pay for the sins of another, but God can. I know the Spiritual oneness Christ shares with the Father seems to you unlike One, but that doesn't change the fact that it is true. Everything for you against Christ hinges on a narrow definition of One.

Too bad all the same because Jesus was not God. The Christian Trinity cannot be true because according to Physics and Logic there can't be more than one God. I am referring to my thread about the Absolute Oneness of HaShem as following:

The Absolute Oneness of God

Isaiah says that, absolutely, God cannot be compared with anyone or anything, as we read Isaiah 46:5. "To whom will ye liken Me, and make Me equal to , or compare Me with, that we may be alike?"

Therefore, more than one God would have been unable to produce the world; one would have impeded the work of the other, unless this could be avoided by a suitable division of labor.

More than one Divine Being would have one element in common, and would differ in another; each would thus consist of two elements, and would not be God.

More than one God are moved to action by will; the will, without a substratum, could not act simultaneously in more than one being.

Therefore, the existence of one God is proved; the existence of more than one God cannot be proved. One could suggest that it would be possible; but since as possibility is inapplicable to God, there does not exist more than one God. So, the possibility of ascertaining the existence of God is here confounded with potentiality of existence.

Again, if one God suffices, a second or third God would be superfluous; if one God is not sufficient, he is not perfect, and cannot be a deity.

Now, besides being God absolutely One, He is incorporeal. If God were corporeal, He would consist of atoms, and would not be one; or he would be comparable to other beings; but a comparison implies the existence of similar and of dissimilar elements, and God would thus not be One. A corporeal God would be finite, and an external power would be required to define those limits.
 
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