ECT Our triune God

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Hey, whatever helps you sleep better at night as a blasphemous heretic in derision and delusion.

Of course you can see now that you made a blunder. Otherwise you would try to defend what you said earlier.

I'd post an entire exegetical Hebrew treatment of Son of God and Son of Man, but... pearls before swine. I'll just leave you to what you want so badly in Zionist reprobation.

You are good at finding excuses so you don't have to do what you say that you can do.

And you remain totally confused because you assert that the Lord Jesus originally had but one nature and then when He acquired another nature He did not change.

According to you the Lord Jesus with one nature is exactly the same Jesus with two natures.

At least you are good for a laugh every now and then.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
Of course you can see now that you made a blunder. Otherwise you would try to defend what you said earlier.

You are good at finding excuses so you don't have to do what you say that you can do.

And you remain totally confused because you assert that the Lord Jesus originally had but one nature and then when He acquired another nature He did not change.

According to you the Lord Jesus with one nature is exactly the same Jesus with two natures.

At least you are good for a laugh every now and then.

Laugh away, blasphemer.:spam:
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
You are no different from Arsenios.

Thank you. He's a true Brother of like precious faith.

Why don't you answer me instead of attacking me?

Why do you attack others and then have double standards?

I have long ago left you to the futility of your follies of theosophology.

You have nothing to offer, and will receive nothing from the several others who have destroyed your fallacious pet view.
 

Arsenios

Well-known member
Arsenios said:
Do you really THINK that YOU are God???
[Arsenios]

I never SAID that...

Did I ASK you if you SAID that?

:nono:

I ASKED you what you THINK...

Your reply EVADED answering the question...

You also ignored:

Do YOU THINK human nature is created or uncreated?

So you have evaded and ignored simple questions.

So here is ANOTHER simple question for you:

Does this make you an ignorant evader? :)

Arsenios
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
I have long ago left you to the futility of your follies of theosophology.

No, you left because I quoted Scriptures to you that you could not answer. For instance, you said:

"Son of God" is reference to the Davidic King, the promised "house" or lineage. His humanity.

I said no, the term "Son of Man" was employed when referring to the Davidic King:

"I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of Man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him. And there was given him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve him: his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed" (Dan.7:13-14).​

Since you were unable to defend your idea with that verse in view you left any discussion in regard to the meaning of the terms "Son of Man" and "Son of God."
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Do YOU THINK human nature is created or uncreated?

The Lord Jesus has always been both God and Man. So that Human was not created.

Then during the creation humans were created in His image.

According to your ideas the Lord Jesus originally had only one nature and then when He acquired another nature He was not changed.

According to your ideas the Lord Jesus with one nature is exactly identical to Jesus with two natures.

You are unable to reason out of the Scriptures because of your pre-conceived ideas!
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
You would have us believe this!:

And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the human being which is in heaven"​

Of course. When the Lord Jesus referred to Himself as "Son of Man" He was saying that He was Man. And Man means "a human being."

So when the Lord Jesus said this:

"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​

It can be interpreted in the following way:

"And no human hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Human which is in heaven."

Do you deny that the Lord Jesus is now in heaven as a Human?

Because as you know, Jesus did:

36 David himself, in the Holy Spirit, declared,

“‘The Lord said to my Lord,
“Sit at my right hand,
until I put your enemies under your feet.”’
37 David himself calls him Lord. So how is he his son?” And the great throng heard him gladly.​

Would you please explain how that helps you in anyway? I see nothing there which even hints that when the Lord used the term "Son of Man" that He was referring to anything other than being a Human. You must be seeing something that I am not so please spell it out.

(By the way, notice here in Mark "the great throng" heard Him gladly but in Matthew 22:41-46, the Pharisees didn't. Which is what I said earlier about those in authority being in the position to do something about His claim as The Son of Man of Daniel.)

It was not His claiming to be Son of Man that upset them so much. Instead, it was His claim to be Son of God that angered them:

"The Jews answered him, We have a law, and by our law he ought to die, because he made himself the Son of God" (Jn.19:7).​

Again, as I laid out earlier for the trial, Jesus ties it all together here--David's Lord is Daniel's The Son of Man:

Again the high priest asked him, “Are you the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?” 62 And Jesus said, “I am, and you will see the Son of Man seated at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven.”​

I still cannot see why you think that these things are teaching that the term Son of Man is referring to something other than being Human. You need to explain what you are thinking.
 

aikido7

BANNED
Banned
Oue "Triune God" is a man-made, faith-based framework placed OVER the Bible. It is a map, not the territory. It might be a useful and helpful concept, but it is not in the Bible AS a concept.

It is only there because man has developed it after the Bible was written.
 

Ask Mr. Religion

☞☞☞☞Presbyterian (PCA) &#9
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So by the Lord's own words He was in heaven as Man before He came down to the earth and was born of Mary.

Jerry,

You are beyond the bounds of the faith with these views. You have shown yourself to be unwilling to be corrected. I continue to urge you to speak with your Pastor about this. Please do so as soon as possible. Once you have sought the guidance of your Pastor and are open to correction, I will gladly help you learn more. Until that time, Proverbs 23:9; 26:4 and Matthew 7:6 applies. I will pray that you will be made willing to see your errors before it is too late.

AMR
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
You are beyond the bounds of the faith with these views.

Since you are so informed then why did you not even attempt to answer what I said in my last post to you? Perhaps this time you will actually respond to my remarks in answer to your points:

However it is certainly true that the Son was not man before the incarnation. And the Son's human nature is not eternal.

So are you saying that the Lord Jesus is no longer Man while sitting at the right hand of God in the heavenly, eternal kingdom?

Let's focus on the question I asked that you have avoided and then deal with others:

I answered one of your questions but you responded to nothing which I said. Here is that question and please answer my response to your question:

Do you think the human nature of Jesus would have existed at all without God the Son?

The Lord Jesus as Man and as God existed in eternity. So neither nature was dependant on the other. After all, we see that the Lord Jesus does not change:

"Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever" (Heb.13:8).​

These words speak for themselves but since they contradict your teaching you must somehow change the plain meaning:

The passage is Hebrews 13:8 is not teaching anything related to the ontological nature of our Lord. Instead, the references to former "leaders" who had preached the word of God to the community (Hebrews 13:7), and the present leaders whose authority is to be respected (Hebrews 13:17), are complementary. Hebrews 13:7-9 hang together conceptually: the word of God proclaimed previously (in Hebrews 13:7) is crystallized in the confessional formulation of 13:8.

When Hebrews was written the Lord Jesus was both God and Man. That cannot be denied. We also read the same thing in the first chapter:

"And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands: They shall perish; but thou remainest; and they all shall wax old as doth a garment;And as a vesture shalt thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but thou art the same, and thy years shall not fail" (Heb.1:10-12).​

Despite these facts you say that He did change. According to your idea He originally only had one nature and then at some point He acquired another nature. That can only mean that He underwent a change.

So your idea is contradicted by the Scriptures. How do you explain that? The author of Hebrews says that He is the same yesterday, today and tomorrow and that He does not change.

You say that He did change. I believe what the author of Hebrews said instead of you.

We also know that the Lord Jesus Himself said this:

"What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?" (Jn.6:62).​

So by the Lord's own words He was in heaven as Man before He came down to the earth and was born of Mary.

Evidently you, like many others, falsely believe that a flesh and blood body is essential to humanity. And that is the source of your error. You put more faith in your preconceived ideas than you do in what the Scriptures actually say.

That is my response to one of your questions. Now it is your time to answer my response. Or you can concede that what I said is correct.
 

aikido7

BANNED
Banned
The Trinity is theology, not history. The term is never found in the Bible, but later believers have placed the term "Trinity" onto certain traditions and verses they cherry-pick from the whole.

It is a term that is useful, but it is not literally, actually "biblical."
 

Soror1

New member
Good aftahnewn.:cool:

I do declare! :peach: Is that a southern accent I detect? (she says, in pure New England Yankee dialect lol)

It cannot. Though much lip service is paid to doing so with bare assertions, it simply cannot. Transcendence is most often considered heaven; and the lip service to any created heaven is insufficient.

Uncreated phenomenon and created phenomena are incongruous.
I truly have no idea who might consider transcendence heaven--unless someone hasn't read Genesis. Heaven is so very clearly creation--right there in Gen 1:1!

He is metaphysically indepedendent of His creation but is the very reason it exists and continues to exist as He is the very one sustaining it.

It is wholly untenable that God (the Father) as a hypostasis created through the Son hypostasis. He spoke.

We'll get there! But first trying to understand your ontological system.

No. It seems so and is declared so, but it most definitely does not except in lip service by bare assertion.

If you would attempt to demonstrate it explicitly, that would help you see you can't.

Classical theism doesn't agree that God is omnipresent? Yeesh, PPS, I don't think we have the same understanding of terms.

God is--I think we agree--(at minimum) transcendent, immutable, metaphysically simple, impassible, immaterial, infinite, and atemporal. He is pure be-ing in pure act--no unrealized potential in Him. He is holding every last particle of matter together and if He didn't we'd poof out of existence.

Just to be sure were on the same page:

Judeo-Christian beliefs constitute a third opinion on omnipresence. To both mainstream Jewish and Christian religions, God is omnipresent. However, the major difference between these monotheistic religions and other religious systems is that God is still transcendent to His creation and yet immanent in relating to creation. God is not immersed in the substance of creation, even though he is able to interact with it as he chooses. He cannot be excluded from any location or object in creation.[6] God's presence is continuous throughout all of creation, though it may not be revealed in the same way at the same time to people everywhere. At times, he may be actively present in a situation, while he may not reveal that he is present in another circumstance in some other area.​

is this how you understand omnipresence?

But this bare assertion doesn't account for it. HOW did the uncreated transcendent God create and inhabit His creation while remaining eternally transcendent. Aquinas did NOT account for this.

Now I'm pretty sure we're not understanding terms the same way. Are you in agreement that God is not subject to time, matter, or space (or any other created dimension)? When you say "inhabit", that means to me that He is. And, yes, Aquinas did account for it and many others. (Just a snip)--

God is said to be in all things by essence, not indeed by the essence of the things themselves, as if He were of their essence; but by His own essence; because His substance is present to all things as the cause of their being.​

But it has objective reality of existence. It's not just noumenon. The book has/is phenomenon.

Ah--this is an interesting development (for me).

Was just trying to focus on rhema and logos right now as applied to a human being to get those concepts straight before applying them to God.

But...now we need an ontology of the book first!

When you say a book is "not just noumenon" in what sense is it noumenon at all?

You earlier defined noumenon as "that which is conceived in the mind, but does not have any objective existence".

This is so fundamental to your ontology of God that it really needs to be understood to understand the rest.

There also seems to be a particular theory of perception/and or epistemology here operating as a hidden assumption (I don't mean that subversively, of course! I just mean unstated.)

For example, I wouldn't say "The ONLY true objective reality is God"--I'd say, "that book over there? It really is objectively a book existing in reality, viewed by a subject."

Can you clarify?
 

Soror1

New member
Of course. When the Lord Jesus referred to Himself as "Son of Man" He was saying that He was Man. And Man means "a human being."

So when the Lord Jesus said this:

"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​

It can be interpreted in the following way:

"And no human hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Human which is in heaven."

Do you deny that the Lord Jesus is now in heaven as a Human?



Would you please explain how that helps you in anyway? I see nothing there which even hints that when the Lord used the term "Son of Man" that He was referring to anything other than being a Human. You must be seeing something that I am not so please spell it out.



It was not His claiming to be Son of Man that upset them so much. Instead, it was His claim to be Son of God that angered them:

"The Jews answered him, We have a law, and by our law he ought to die, because he made himself the Son of God" (Jn.19:7).​



I still cannot see why you think that these things are teaching that the term Son of Man is referring to something other than being Human. You need to explain what you are thinking.

I'm not going to give up on you, Jerry...

(Well...yet :D )
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
I do declare! :peach: Is that a southern accent I detect? (she says, in pure New England Yankee dialect lol)

It was, though now neutralized by a decade elsewhere. Alas, I'm now boringly devoid of much of any accent.

I truly have no idea who might consider transcendence heaven--

First, the majority consider God to have been IN heaven as eternity, and from heaven He created the cosmos. Not much further consideration is given to any whats or hows.

And for those who do understand heaven as created, it's very much merely lip eservice with no attendant "how" whatsoever.

unless someone hasn't read Genesis. Heaven is so very clearly creation--right there in Gen 1:1!

Many would initially or ultimately agree that heaven is created, but still cannot do anything but assert such with no accounting for how.

He is metaphysically indepedendent of His creation but is the very reason it exists and continues to exist as He is the very one sustaining it.

Of course this is true, and most would concur even if they couldn't articulate it themselves.

In general, I do take issue with the term metaphysical (bolded) because it really is a horrific term for contrast. First, all creation is not physical and innately tangible. Heaven and the angelic host are not physical, unless we indicate a definition that refers to physis (nature) rather than materiality. As intangible non-material created phenomenon, the angelic host may manifest an appearance in the material realm but do not and must not necessarily do so to be created phenomenon.

And meta- (being the preposition governing the accusative and genitive) has a primary meaning as mid, amid, in the midst, with, among; implying accompaniment and thus differing from sun-.

And this is part of the reason most don't truly consider heaven as created. First, creation is most often generally considered to be ONLY all physical materiality. And second, God isn't intrinsically amidst phenomenal creation. He is innately anterior to heaven and the cosmos as uncreated phenomenon. Self-Conscious Self-Existence. A hypostasis underlying an ousia (having a physis), and shining forth as a transcendent prospon.

We'll get there!

I know you think we will, but we actually won't. Classical Trinitarianism will run its course straight into a wall that demands unfounded and unsupported presumptive assertion at the precipice of either personal understanding, obfuscation, or declared mystery.

But first trying to understand your ontological system.

And you are in rare air to be openly attempting to do so, and more so with any level of understanding. Two millennia of uni-phenomenal perceptive reasoning always gets in the way as cognitive dissonance for most. You are incredibly resilient to that, which is one way I know of your renewed mind in Christ.

Classical theism doesn't agree that God is omnipresent?

Of course Classical Theism agrees God is omnipresent, to the extent it applies omnipresence to either physicality of the cosmos and/or that God is omnipresent once there are wheres AS presence for His "omni".

(And I was inferring the abbreviation as Classical Trinitarianism rather than Classical Theism.)

Yeesh, PPS, I don't think we have the same understanding of terms.

Well... Only because we have different understandings of phenomenon and noumenon. God is noumenally omnipresent before He even instantiates phenomenal creation into existence.

All I'm indicating is the insufficiency of the term and its overall usage. Unltil there were "wheres", God was not physically omnipresent. There was no presence of creation (heaven of the cosmos) for His omni-.

God is--I think we agree--(at minimum) transcendent, immutable, metaphysically simple, impassible, immaterial, infinite, and atemporal.

Yes, and more. Eternity is one key incommunicable attribute that you omitted, and is culpable as causing the great confusion to which I so often refer.

There is no eternity but God. It is incommunicable to His creation. And THAT is the distinction most lack; and it's the distinction omitted by the Patristics and later butchered by Aquinas.

There aren't two "kinds" of eternity, God and heaven. God alone is eternal, and He created the everlasting heaven (and cosmos, which "fell" to temporality).

Without getting into an argument over whether aidios and aionois are respectively depicting uncreated timelessness verses all created forms of time OR both being applied synonyms for created time... Eternity as God's incommunicable attribute is innate only to Him and His Self-Conscious Self-Existence.

Heaven is not eternity. Heaven is everlasting. The cosmos was everlasting. Spiritual death, sin, and physical death brought temporality to the physical creation.

These need to be carefully and explicitly delineated. The English term "eternity" is part of the problem. It either needs to be distinct from the term "everlasting", as a line is to a ray in geometry; or it needs to not be applied as the term of God's incommunicable timelessness.

Though not as egregious as the English term "person" for hypostasis, this is a huge issue for vital clarity. God's incommunicable attribute cannot be confused with any created attribute, property, functionality, etc.

Either God alone is eternity, or His incommunicable attribute of timelessness needs another term. And this applies to "eternal" life in the context of salvation. It either needs to rigrously be "everlasting" life, or "eternal" needs to never be applied to God as an incommunicable attribute.

It would be far better to utilize "eternal" exclusively for God and "everlasting" for all else, while contrasting temporality to BOTH. This is the issue between uni-phenomenality and multi-phenomenality. Uni- unites eternity and aeviternity (everlasting), with the disastrous consequences of not being able to distinguish God's incommunicable attribute from some portion of creation.

Hence, there is no "eternity past". God is eternity. Timelessness. The arrears-reaching time from the present is everlastingness back to its created inception only.

He is pure be-ing in pure act--no unrealized potential in Him. He is holding every last particle of matter together and if He didn't we'd poof out of existence.

Yes. But you do not and cannot yet realize that God as uncreated phenomenon being compatible with created phenomenon is a huge thing to account for. One cannot simply say something like, "God bulit and occupied a house.", even while also asserting He was also outside the house while in the house. For the "house" as heaven and the cosmos is not the same phenomenon of existence as Him.

There must be a "formatting" (the best descriptor I can employ at present) of God's uncreatedness for compatibility with createdness. THIS is the problem with ALL historical attempts for a Theology Proper formulaic, not just Classical Trinitarianism (which is NOT what most modern professing Trinitarians understand anyway).

Just to be sure were on the same page:

Judeo-Christian beliefs constitute a third opinion on omnipresence. To both mainstream Jewish and Christian religions, God is omnipresent. However, the major difference between these monotheistic religions and other religious systems is that God is still transcendent to His creation and yet immanent in relating to creation.​


Stopping here... This gives lip service to the disinction between transcendence and immanent creation, but no "how". There's never been an appropriate "how", including Aquinas' epic fail.

God is not immersed in the substance of creation, even though he is able to interact with it as he chooses. He cannot be excluded from any location or object in creation.[6] God's presence is continuous throughout all of creation, though it may not be revealed in the same way at the same time to people everywhere. At times, he may be actively present in a situation, while he may not reveal that he is present in another circumstance in some other area.
is this how you understand omnipresence?

Yes, though it's incredibly incomplete. AND... this type of definition is always directed toward material creation and ignoring intangible creation (heaven).

Now I'm pretty sure we're not understanding terms the same way.

The disparity is beyond that.

Are you in agreement that God is not subject to time, matter, or space (or any other created dimension)?

Yes.

When you say "inhabit", that means to me that He is.

No. He tents in heaven as His everlasting abode, also remaining eternally transcendent to heavenly and cosmological creation.

And, yes, Aquinas did account for it and many others. (Just a snip)--

I know you think He did. Many think so. Sigh. He did not. He provided extensive and copious vagueries from a uni-phenomenal perspective ATTEMPTING to present multi-phenomenality. That's why I consider him the most epic failure of all besides Augustine and the plethora of modern theosophologians currently hybridizing the Faith with Esotericism, etc.

God is said to be in all things by essence, not indeed by the essence of the things themselves, as if He were of their essence; but by His own essence; because His substance is present to all things as the cause of their being.​

Poorly stated, but okay. We'd have to discuss the essence portion, along with including heaven as a consideration in this or any description/definition.

Ah--this is an interesting development (for me).

Was just trying to focus on rhema and logos right now as applied to a human being to get those concepts straight before applying them to God.

But...now we need an ontology of the book first!

There must be ontologically substantial objective reality for existence. There are two phenomena of existence: uncreated phenomenon and created phenomenon. They cannot be addressed as homogenous. They must be understood as multi-phenomenal considerations, not as a uni-phenomenal consideration. Creation has no innate objective reality of existence of its own. The Creator IS the true and only foundational underlying substantial objective reality of existence. And it is His Rhema that carried forth and perpetually upholds created objective reality as phenomena.

When you say a book is "not just noumenon" in what sense is it noumenon at all?

To be conceived in the mind for representation (re-presentation). Noumenon is predicated upon objective reality.

There would be no subjective creation given phenomenal existence if it weren't for God's uncreated Self-Phenomenon and Self-Noumenon. Our noumenon has no innate Self-Phenomenal existence, though we are created phenomenon.

You earlier defined noumenon as "that which is conceived in the mind, but does not have any objective existence".

The noumenon has no objective reality. The objective reality is that of the object. For God, His Logos is both uncreated phenomenon AND noumenon. Whatever He thinks and wills is accompanied by the ontology and power to accomplish it coming into existence. Our noumenon is not Self-phenomenal or with such innate power.

Our logos may only subjectively re-present objective reality, OR the noumenon can only be a figment of the imagination.

This is so fundamental to your ontology of God that it really needs to be understood to understand the rest.

Agreed.

Our noumenon is not phenomenon. Our logos is not the means of our noumenon being based on intrinsic Self-Phenomenon. Our logos can only re-present phenomenality in words. We cannot innately create.

So the word "book" is only the re-presentation of the object's objective reality as the subjective realization that is a word.

There also seems to be a particular theory of perception/and or epistemology here operating as a hidden assumption (I don't mean that subversively, of course! I just mean unstated.)

We're beginning to uncover that. It's the foundational distinction between multi- and uni- phenomenality.

For example, I wouldn't say "The ONLY true objective reality is God"--I'd say, "that book over there? It really is objectively a book existing in reality, viewed by a subject."

Can you clarify?

Yes, simply for now. All created objective reality is still ultimately subjective to God, who is the ONLY TRUE objective reality. Better said, all created objective reality is subject to the one UNcreated objective reality... GOD.

We'll need to talk about the scabbard for the sword of the Spirit. The sword and its scabbard are one.
 
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1Mind1Spirit

Literal lunatic
Yes, simply for now. All created objective reality is still ultimately subjective to God as the ONLY TRUE objective reality. Better said, all created objective reality is subject to the one UNcreated objective reality... GOD.

The problem so far is you have not stayed with one definition of hypostasis.

You have borrowed every meaning put forth by the differing Theologians before you.

Then conveniently affirm you have nothing to do with those guys.:wazzup:


You literally need to learn what objective means.

For if you understood it's meaning you could in no wise apply it to God.

objective
star
see definition of objective

show

adj fair, impartial
noun aim, goal

detached



Common
Informal
Synonyms for objective
adj fair, impartial

detached star
disinterested star
dispassionate star
equitable star
evenhanded star
nonpartisan star

open-minded star
unbiased star
cold star
cool star
straight star
impersonal star

judicial star
just star
like it is star
nondiscriminatory star
strictly business star
uncolored star

unemotional star
uninvolved star
unprejudiced star
unprepossessed star

Antonyms for objective

biased
interested
involved
partial

passionate
prejudiced
subjective
excited

friendly
hot
warm
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
The problem so far is you have not stayed with one definition of hypostasis.

You have borrowed every meaning put forth by the differing Theologians before you.

Then conveniently affirm you have nothing to do with those guys.:wazzup:

No. I've rigorously, incessantly, consistently, vociferously, voraciously, arduously, adamantly defined hypostasis as: foundational underlying absolute assured substantial objective reality of existence.

Objective is only a part of the extensive compound meaning.

You literally need to learn what objective means.

For if you understood it's meaning you could in no wise apply it to God.

objective
star
see definition of objective

show

adj fair, impartial
noun aim, goal

detached



Common
Informal
Synonyms for objective
adj fair, impartial

detached star
disinterested star
dispassionate star
equitable star
evenhanded star
nonpartisan star

open-minded star
unbiased star
cold star
cool star
straight star
impersonal star

judicial star
just star
like it is star
nondiscriminatory star
strictly business star
uncolored star

unemotional star
uninvolved star
unprejudiced star
unprepossessed star

Antonyms for objective

biased
interested
involved
partial

passionate
prejudiced
subjective
excited

friendly
hot
warm

And YOU need to understand contextual usage for definition. In this usage, which is pervasive, objective is referring to the object. Hence, objective.

I posted an introductory definition for both objective and subjective if you'd like to read it instead of strawmanning.
 
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