You lack basic communication skills. At one time I thought you were a fairly bright fellow, but now I see that you are just a retard.
Again, you have no answers so instead of responding you make personal attacks in ther hope that no one will notice that you did not even attempt to defend your views.
...in no way do I reject or deny that a believer is to sanctify their bodies and their minds.
But you close your eyes to the state of a Christian when he does not sanctify his body.
When he sins he becomes defiled and is no longer holy. That is why the Christian is told the following:
"But as he which hath called you is holy, so be ye holy in all manner of living; Because it is written, Be ye holy; for I am holy" (1 Pet.1:16-17).
The Apostle Peter tells the Christian to be "holy" in all manner of living. That means that a Christian can sin and become unholy, defiled by that sin. And the Lord has made provision for the Christian who sins and therefore becomes unholy:
"If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness" (1 Jn.1:9).
But you deny that the Christian ever needs cleansing from the defilement that is caused by sin. Can you not understand that the sins which any man commits, whether he be saved or not, defiles that man? The Lord Jesus said:
"But those things which proceed out of the mouth come forth from the heart; and they defile the man. For out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false witness, blasphemies: These are the things which defile a man" (Mt.15:18-20).
You say that since a Christian sin's were cleansed earlier at his conversion then he no longer needs cleansing. Then you quote verses that are in regard to a Christian's "standing" in order to attempt to prove your assertion while ignoring all the verses that are in regard to his "walk."
You just cannot seem to understand that any sins that a Christian commits during his "walk" defiles him. Then you deny the very provision which the Lord makes for cleansing the Christian from the defilement caused by sin. Here John, who is a Christian, speaks of this provision to other Christians:
"If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness" (1 Jn.1:9).
Here the word "we" must be in reference to Christians since John is included when he says "we," because John is a Christian. And the word "our" must be in reference to Christians, since John says that this epistle is written to Christians (1 Jn.2:12).
So if words have any meaning the Apostle John is telling Christians to confess their sins, and as a result the Lord will cleanse them from the defilement which that sin caused.
But you expect others to get stupid and believe you when you say that John is not telling Christians to confess their sins.
You have given no reasonable explanation why anyone should not believe that when John uses the words "we" and "our" that those words are in reference to Christians.
And why would the Lord tell His disciples to pray in the following way?:
"Give us day by day our daily bread. And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil" (Lk.11:3-4).
In His grace,
Jerry