Mid-Acts water baptism

[Clete]

Ephesians was written after Acts 18 (i.e., it's God's more recent instruction).

That sounds like the first sentence of an argument! By itself it's merely a claim.

Can you establish that claim?

Paul baptized nobody in Acts 19

I just quoted you yesterday where he very definitely did do so.

Acts 19:1 And it happened, while Apollos was at Corinth, that Paul, having passed through the upper regions, came to Ephesus. And finding some disciples 2 he said to them, “Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?”
So they said to him, “We have not so much as heard whether there is a Holy Spirit.”
3 And he said to them, “Into what then were you baptized?”
So they said, “Into John’s baptism.”
4 Then Paul said, “John indeed baptized with a baptism of repentance, saying to the people that they should believe on Him who would come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.”
5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. 6 And when Paul had laid hands on them, the Holy Spirit came upon them, and they spoke with tongues and prophesied. 7 Now the men were about twelve in all.

(even if he had, it would be irrelevant because Ephesians was written after Acts 19).

Again, claims do not an argument make. Can you establish that this is so?

The timeline matters.

Then I would ask that you establish that timeline.