ECT MAD has no clue what "dispensation " means in scripture ! NONE

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
You're baiting.

State your case; try to prove it (miserably, as usual) than maybe, we'll go from there :chuckle:

Someone doesn't have to be very astute to see what I'm saying....oh wait...I'm dealing with Darby Followers.....forget the astute part.....

Paul always used the word "Christ" when preaching to pagan Gentiles. The word "Christ" is the Greek equivalent for the Hebrew word "Messiah".

So, why would Paul use the word (Christ) to pagan Gentiles who had no idea what, or who the Messiah was, or was promised to?
 

whitestone

Well-known member
Don't know which post you are referring to.



There is that one time....when the Disciples acted like Darby Followers:

(Luke 22:24) A dispute also arose among them as to which of them was considered to be greatest.

post #274,page 19

Your avoiding Galatians 1:12 KJV for some reason or another and trying to dismiss what I said to Dodge in relation to the scripture he spoke of in Luke?

Hmm,glad everyone else is reading along...
 

Danoh

New member
Nope....once again Hebrews proves Dispensationalism wrong.

(Heb 12:24 KJV) And to Jesus the mediator of the new covenant, and to the blood of sprinkling, that speaketh better things than that of Abel.

I could prove Dispensationalism false with just the book of Hebrews.

Knock yourself out...literally :chuckle:

Geez, could you please, please, please get around to presenting an actual challenge, some day?

Just once?

Pretty please?
 

Danoh

New member
Someone doesn't have to be very astute to see what I'm saying....oh wait...I'm dealing with Darby Followers.....forget the astute part.....

Paul always used the word "Christ" when preaching to pagan Gentiles. The word "Christ" is the Greek equivalent for the Hebrew word "Messiah".

So, why would Paul use the word (Christ) to pagan Gentiles who had no idea what, or who the Messiah was, or was promised to?

Come on; that is so easy for me; after years and years and years actually in the Scripture.

Is that all you got?

Really?

Seriously?

You are such an incompetent.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
post #274,page 19

My point is that Paul fully understood the law and prophets. That made it easier for Paul to understand the New Covenant.

Your avoiding Galatians 1:12 KJV for some reason or another

No, I made it clear that Paul was taught the New Covenant by the risen Lord Jesus Christ. Paul was not taught the New Covenant by any man.

That doesn't mean that Paul wasn't taught the law and prophets by men. He was, he was a Pharisee.

IOW, Paul was taught the OC by men. Then Paul was taught the NC personally, by the risen, ascended, Lord Jesus Christ after Pentecost.
 

Danoh

New member
My point is that Paul fully understood the law and prophets. That made it easier for Paul to understand the New Covenant.



No, I made it clear that Paul was taught the New Covenant by the risen Lord Jesus Christ. Paul was not taught the New Covenant by any man.

That doesn't mean that Paul wasn't taught the law and prophets by men. He was, he was a Pharisee.

IOW, Paul was taught the OC by men. Then Paul was taught the NC personally, by the risen, ascended, Lord Jesus Christ after Pentecost.

Rubbish...

What did the Apostle John remind "they of the Circumcision which believed" Acts 10:45; Gal. 2:7-9?

1 John 2:27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Come on; that is so easy for me; after years and years and years actually in the Scripture.

Is that all you got?

Really?

Seriously?

You are such an incompetent.

It's a simple question.

Still waiting for an answer.

Why did Paul describe Jesus as the Messiah to Gentiles, if the Gentiles had no clue what a Messiah was?
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Rubbish...

Dispensationalism is rubbish.
What did the Apostle John remind "they of the Circumcision which believed" Acts 10:46; Gal. 2:7-9?

Your proving my point.

Peter preached to the circumcision, Paul to the uncircumcision.

So, why did Paul use the word "Christ" to the uncircumcised?
 

Danoh

New member
Dispensationalism is rubbish.


Your proving my point.

Peter preached to the circumcision, Paul to the uncircumcision.

So, why did Paul use the word "Christ" to the uncircumcised?

Nope; Paul preached to both as spiritual uncircumcision.

In contrast, James, Cephas and John confined their ministry to the Believing Remnant (who had believed before Israel was concluded spiritual uncircumcision).

And answer the question you are asking - quit baiting.

O - here's a freebie - the mention of Darby for ya, lol
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Another thing the Darby Followers never take into consideration:

Paul grew up as a Diaspora Jew. Paul grew up Jewish in Tarsus, which was a Greek city, and Paul was a Roman citizen.

In all likelihood, the 12 grew up in or near Judaea, and were not Roman citizens.

So, Paul had a much better background to preach to the Gentiles in Greece, and the Roman Empire. Whereas, the 12 had no such upbringing.
 

whitestone

Well-known member
My point is that Paul fully understood the law and prophets. That made it easier for Paul to understand the New Covenant.



No, I made it clear that Paul was taught the New Covenant by the risen Lord Jesus Christ. Paul was not taught the New Covenant by any man.

That doesn't mean that Paul wasn't taught the law and prophets by men. He was, he was a Pharisee.

IOW, Paul was taught the OC by men. Then Paul was taught the NC personally, by the risen, ascended, Lord Jesus Christ after Pentecost.


Ok then Paul was Taught by men,Gamaliel in spacific Acts 23;3 KJV and he unlike those in Luke being taught by man and our Lord opening up the scriptures to them(12) in Luke like Dodge pointed out is no comparison right?

You use the use "Old Covenant" and "New Covenant" in this post when the scriptures were opened to the 12 in Luke which of the two was it?

Post #218 wasn’t much but relate the things we are speaking of back to Acts 15:6 KJV in relation to what’s exactly going on there, is what is being considered something relieved in the scriptures that were opened to them in Luke or something that was hidden from the foundation?
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Nope. I do not answer baiting questions.

Nice try, sly.

blah, blah, blah......

Not only have you not given an answer, but none of your fellow Darby Followers can explain why Paul used the word "Christ" when preaching to the uncircumcised Gentiles.
 

steko

Well-known member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Another thing the Darby Followers never take into consideration:

Paul grew up as a Diaspora Jew. Paul grew up Jewish in Tarsus, which was a Greek city. Paul was a Roman citizen. And, Paul was trained as a Pharisee.

In all likelihood, the 12 grew up in or near Judaea, and were not Roman citizens.

So, Paul had a much better background to preach to the Gentiles in Greece, and the Roman Empire. Whereas, the 12 had no such upbringing.

Yeah, never considered that. :dizzy:

Your broad brush assumption.... again.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Yeah, never considered that.

Wouldn't it have been easier for a Diaspora Jew (who grew up in a Greek city, and who was a Roman citizen) to preach to Gentiles, then it would have been for a Jew who grew up in Jerusalem to preach to Gentiles?
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
You use the use "Old Covenant" and "New Covenant" in this post when the scriptures were opened to the 12 in Luke which of the two was it?

Jesus spoke of the New Covenant in parables. The parables contained things hidden since the foundation of the world.

(Matt 13:35) That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying, I will open my mouth in parables; I will utter things which have been kept secret from the foundation of the world.

However, the 12 didn't understand the parables. Jesus had to explain some of them, and they still didn't understand them.

It wasn't until after Pentecost, after they were given the Holy Spirit, that they began to understand the New Covenant.

Almost every parable that Jesus gave, is what the Apostle Paul preached regarding the New Covenant.
 

steko

Well-known member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Wouldn't it have been easier for a Diaspora Jew (who grew up in a Greek city, and who was a Roman citizen) to preach to Gentiles, then it would have been for a Jew who grew up in Jerusalem to preach to Gentiles?

'than'

Certainly it would, nevertheless, the twelve were commanded to go to the nations after Jerusalem and Judea came to Messiah.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER

As Archie Bunker used to say....."whatever"

Certainly it would, nevertheless, the twelve were commanded to go to the nations after Jerusalem and Judea came to Messiah.

No...the 12 were told not to go amongst the Samaritans, or Gentiles.

Then, AFTER the cross, the 12 are told to go amongst the Samaritans, and Gentiles.

You need to ask yourself, why they couldn't before the cross, and why they were told to do so, after the cross.
 
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