Yes, there is another possibility.
No, Trevor, there is not.
Either Jesus is God, or He is not God. Law of Excluded Middle. A or Not-A.
Yes, we need to accept the uniqueness of the way that Jesus spoke by comparison to the prophets “Thus saith the LORD”, but I repeat
Repeating your position doesn't magically make it come true, Trevor. And in fact, it does little, if anything, to support your position, seeing as I already told you that such is the PREMISE of MY POSITION. In other words, I fully agree with what you're saying. But I'm telling you that you're not going far enough with your reasoning, and it's causing you to reject the One who made you.
that Jesus spoke God the Father’s words,
WE AGREE! Now let's go FURTHER!
He does more than just speak God's words, Trevor.
HE CLAIMS THEM AS HIS OWN simply by uttering the phrase, "I say unto you" instead of "Thus says the Lord."
Why are you so stubborn to even address my point of contention here, Trevor? You're stuck on the "Jesus spoke God's words" bit.
and these were given to him by God, that is, the One God the Father. Jesus is the Son of God.
Deuteronomy 18:15,18 (KJV): 15 The LORD thy God will raise up unto thee a Prophet from the midst of thee, of thy brethren, like unto me; unto him ye shall hearken; 18 I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.
Kind regards
Trevor
Again, not the point of contention!
The point of contention is that Jesus is either God or not God, and the Bible says that Jesus claims God's words as His own. According to YOUR position, that's blasphemy, because you say Jesus is not God, and therefore DOES NOT HAVE THE RIGHT to claim God's words as His own. Why do you think, if Jesus is not God, that that makes Him any different than the prophets of old, where they were ALSO given God's words to speak, but yet NOT. ONCE. did ANY of them claim them as their own. If your position is correct, what's the difference between Jesus and one of the prophets of old, and why does He get special permissions, where they do not? The problem is that your position DESTROYS any specialness that Christ had, not because He spoke God's words, but BECAUSE. HE. IS. GOD.
According to my position, however, it's NOT blasphemy for Jesus to claim God's words as His own, because Jesus IS IN FACT God, and therefore has every right to claim God's words as His own BECAUSE THEY ARE HIS WORDS!
Trevor, Answer this:
Did Jesus, by using the phrase, "I say unto you," claim God's words as His own?