Is marital rape scripturally defensible?

ok doser

Well-known member
I didn't really think this site could get this bizarre, but it has.

there was, for a time, a large contingent of noisy feminists active on the site

the OP was by one of them


and while feminists don't have a monopoly on bizarre, they certainly have mastered the form
 

genuineoriginal

New member
Now just where in this passage does the Bible approve of rape?
It doesn't.
Rape is a crime that isn't about sex
That is just silly.
If there was no sex involved, it wouldn't be rape.
, but about asserting power over another person. It's about domination, not sex. That has been proven many times through interviews with convicted rapists.
The amount of confirmation bias that lead to that conclusion is astounding.

I find the thinking that a husband cannot be guilty of raping his own wife extremely bizarre.
That is because you have been brainwashed into accepting a false definition of rape.

Here is a good definition:
Rape is "A carnal knowledge of a woman not one's wife by force or against her will."​
 

ffreeloader

Well-known member
It doesn't.

That is just silly.
If there was no sex involved, it wouldn't be rape.


The amount of confirmation bias that lead to that conclusion is astounding.


That is because you have been brainwashed into accepting a false definition of rape.

Here is a good definition:
Rape is "A carnal knowledge of a woman not one's wife by force or against her will."​
So, the guy who goes out and beats a woman half to death is just interested in sex? Really? If all he wanted was sex why not just go find any old loose woman or a prostitute who would give it to him willingly? Instead he will beat a woman so badly she ends up in the hospital. He may even slice her up with his knife, tie her up, gag her, and sometimes go so far as to kill her. And as far as you're concerned that's just a desire for sex.

I'll tell you a story of a woman I know very well. I've been married to her for 38 years. Her ex used to try to smother her with a pillow during sex. He'd forcibly try to penetrate her anally. He'd bite her so hard he'd break her skin. And all of this was against her will. He was a rapist. Pure and simple. He'd tell her he was going to rape her and then set out to do just that.

You're absolutely ignorant. Husbands can and do rape their own wives against the will of the wife and use violence against their own wives. That is in complete violation of the passage I quoted from Ephesians 5.

As for confirmation bias, you're the one guilty of that. Not me. Look to your own self and your own sick perversions because raping one's own wife is about as sick a perversion as there is.
 

7djengo7

New member
Here is a good definition:
Rape is "A carnal knowledge of a woman not one's wife by force or against her will."​
Is a woman sending her husband to prison and condemning him to a lifetime on the Sex Offender List by accusing him of rape scripturally defensible?

So, is this what you're saying:

Is a woman sending her husband to prison and condemning him to a lifetime on the Sex Offender List by accusing him of [a carnal knowledge of a woman not one's wife by force or against her will] scripturally defensible?

Not whose wife? Against whose will?
 

Arthur Brain

Well-known member
So, the guy who goes out and beats a woman half to death is just interested in sex? Really? If all he wanted was sex why not just go find any old loose woman or a prostitute who would give it to him willingly? Instead he will beat a woman so badly she ends up in the hospital. He may even slice her up with his knife, tie her up, gag her, and sometimes go so far as to kill her. And as far as you're concerned that's just a desire for sex.

I'll tell you a story of a woman I know very well. I've been married to her for 38 years. Her ex used to try to smother her with a pillow during sex. He'd forcibly try to penetrate her anally. He'd bite her so hard he'd break her skin. And all of this was against her will. He was a rapist. Pure and simple. He'd tell her he was going to rape her and then set out to do just that.

You're absolutely ignorant. Husbands can and do rape their own wives against the will of the wife and use violence against their own wives. That is in complete violation of the passage I quoted from Ephesians 5.

As for confirmation bias, you're the one guilty of that. Not me. Look to your own self and your own sick perversions because raping one's own wife is about as sick a perversion as there is.

Well, we disagree vehemently on political matters but I can't fault your sentiments here. I'm sorry your wife had to endure that from that sorry excuse for a human being.
 

ok doser

Well-known member
So, the guy who goes out and beats a woman half to death is just interested in sex? Really? If all he wanted was sex why not just go find any old loose woman or a prostitute who would give it to him willingly? Instead he will beat a woman so badly she ends up in the hospital. He may even slice her up with his knife, tie her up, gag her, and sometimes go so far as to kill her. And as far as you're concerned that's just a desire for sex.

I'll tell you a story of a woman I know very well. I've been married to her for 38 years. Her ex used to try to smother her with a pillow during sex. He'd forcibly try to penetrate her anally. He'd bite her so hard he'd break her skin. And all of this was against her will. He was a rapist. Pure and simple. He'd tell her he was going to rape her and then set out to do just that.

You're absolutely ignorant. Husbands can and do rape their own wives against the will of the wife and use violence against their own wives. That is in complete violation of the passage I quoted from Ephesians 5.

As for confirmation bias, you're the one guilty of that. Not me. Look to your own self and your own sick perversions because raping one's own wife is about as sick a perversion as there is.

so you agree, then, that there is no scripturally defensible marital rape?

was your wife's ex in the BOC?
 

genuineoriginal

New member
Why is it that some men do not understand that NO means NO? Rhetorical question.

Men are increasingly finding it difficult to understand that having consensual sex can turn into rape four days later when the woman decides to change her mind and falsely claims that she said NO.
 

genuineoriginal

New member
So, the guy who goes out and beats a woman half to death is just interested in sex? Really?
That is just assault, and has nothing to do with rape.

If all he wanted was sex why not just go find any old loose woman or a prostitute who would give it to him willingly?
And if all people wanted was money, they could get a job and work for it instead of robbing banks.
Do you think robbing banks is about power or about money?

Instead he will beat a woman so badly she ends up in the hospital. He may even slice her up with his knife, tie her up, gag her, and sometimes go so far as to kill her.
Those are just assault and murder, and have nothing to do with rape.

And as far as you're concerned that's just a desire for sex.
You seem to have a very perverted idea that sex involves beating women and killing women.

You're absolutely ignorant.
No, that would be you.

Husbands can and do rape their own wives against the will of the wife
That would be impossible under a real definition of rape.

As for confirmation bias, you're the one guilty of that. Not me.
When convicted rapists tell the therapists what the therapists want to hear, the confirmation bias of the therapists prevent them from even considering that they are wrong.
 
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