Theology Club: Does Open Theism Question/dispute the Omniscience of God

Rosenritter

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In observation, we agree, I just disagree with terminology after that point, with most Open Theists. It isn't that "God adapts" imho. It is rather that we choose one or another of consequences. I gave an example: Kids and chores. If my kids do the dishes, something nice, if not, something of negative consequences. My mind changes not at all. I've the same mind regarding chores that I ever have had. Further, let's take the kids, as a must: I don't change toward them either. I have always loved them, but the consequence always follows the action. Could it even be accurately said that I 'changed' my action at that point? My problem is and always was, simply this: A "changing" God isn't a perfect God "If" Perfection cannot change (would be against the definition of perfection). Psalm 18:30 Deuteronomy 32:4

Where did you get "a changing God isn't a perfect God" from? That sounds remarkably like it comes from Greek philosophy, with the same reasoning that anything that was perfect could not change and still be perfect. A perfect acorn would produce only imperfect trees. Regardless, I don't recall anyone saying that God changed. When someone changes their mind it doesn't mean their character changed.

Do you have a scripture that says that a changing God isn't a perfect God? I'm guessing that would be hard to produce. Maybe consider what might be influencing your impression on this one thing? If it wasn't scripture, where did that actually come from?
 

Rosenritter

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Spoiler
Yes, or their excuse for said 'atheism.' I do agree at that point, they aren't 'atheists' per say for it, at least not logically. They are rather conscientious objectors of His portrayal or supposed character. You are right.


Perhaps, at this point, we should talk about what you mean by God "changed His mind." I'm convinced 1) After MANY times through my Bible, that phrase is NEVER said. There is a difference in what you perhaps mean, and the extremely exaggerated colloquial term. It even carries significant negative connotation when connected with Our Lord and God and, as far as I'm scripturally read and hopefully discerning, never is said of God. Now we need to discuss why this is so.


For me, first off, this word does not mean change of mind or feelings, but rather and simply "a different corresponding action." This is my third time giving this analogy (first to you): I tell my kids to do the dishes because I value chores and I value the character of such action in my children. I give 2 corresponding consequences: Movie and allowance, or reserve allowance and restriction if no dishes are done over a week period.

Several points:
A)My mind never changes and until the Lord comes, never will regarding chores and character development.
B) My mind never changes regarding both terms. This is important. An intermediate 'can' come in and say "Dad, she was helping a student after school to pass." However, my mind has not changed. It is exactly the same. What changed? In grace and in appreciation for values developed, I can forgo and leave a third consequence like not giving allowance, but not giving restriction, etc. Did my 'mind' change on anything? :nono: As far as 'good parenting' held up against the example of a perfect God, His mind is the same, always, about sin. It never changes. In fact, to say God's "mind" changes is older than Greek philosophies and goes back to the pagan gods that are just like men (not to accuse Open Theism, here, just to set a precedent for discussion over against ancient philosophies and current ones that invade our theology).

As I told Judgerightly, Perfection, by definition, does not allow change, else it isn't perfect and such also, theologically points to a God who is less than perfect. Example: When Moses intervened between God and Israel for punishment, it was not that God 'needed His emotional anger held back from an injustice.' It was rather that Moses needed to fill the shoes of Israel's caring leader as well as be a type for the Intercessor to come.



"When" did that happen? Did God just not realize the day before that people were using and killing other people? Did He just then figure out what Hamala was doing with Sheiles and His jaw dropped? I'm not being facetious here. I'm asking questions of the text BEFORE I leave the text asserting something hasty, and probably wrong. I know, for fact, how the rest of this story goes, and so I'm not really drawing conclusions at this point because the moment of 'remedy' has not come. I know for a fact that the O.T. is the archetype for Christ. I know, for fact (scripture says) that fixing the sin problem is the plan. Noah shows that evil requires Jesus Christ as Savior and NOTHING else will do. The death of many is/was important history. The way I thus, understand this passage is with the rest of this particular story, and very much couched in the work and life of our Lord Jesus Christ.

Again, and I'm sure you've heard pastors say the same thing: Repentance is a change of action, not of God's mind (an impossibility, there is no greater mind God 'could' change a mind with - it is just not even a good colloquial term and certainly never used in scripture).
Again, change of action, not of mind. It isn't "I changed my mind, I'm not going to destroy you know" but rather "You have stopped doing this one thing, that was to receive this consequence, so you will now not receive that consequence." <-- Not a mind change. Not at all. It is rather a 'different' consequence to a 'different' action. Through Christ, those consequences are no longer there.


Let me turn it around to you for a moment or two: Ephesians 5:1

V.9,10 Is God given to emotional outbursts of violence? Yes or no? If not, how would this be 'a change?'
V.11,12 Is God a "mischievous" God? 1 Peter 1:15-16 Where did that come from? Was it true, or was it merely an accusation?
How do you know? Why do you know it? Where else did that answer necessarily have to come from?

Aren't you exercising the same tools that I necessarily have to use to get good biblical knowledge from here? What tools are those?
(Some heavy questions, all not pointed, however).


Yes you may, and I will point it back. There is naught else you or I can do, but assess and prayerfully rightly assess, the scriptures. Prayerfully, we are both open to correction. I think at the very least, an appreciation for another's study and impressions left from those scripture readings is in order.

:nono: Judgerightly, an Open Theist agreed here with me that "change of mind" is nowhere in scripture. You've given examples of 'repent' but not of God changing His mind.
??? That the words "God changed His mind" appear nowhere in scripture? Again, it is a colloquial term and mostly an English colloquial term (some of other languages find it very weird to even say because of the oddity of it, nobody literally changes his/her mind). Rather, we have to be careful, imho, NOT to import odd colloquial exaggerations into our theology and this one is pretty bad. God has the same mind regarding sin as He ever did. He cannot 'change His mind' over the matter. There is no other god to trade with.

Rather, in His perfection, He, Himself, moved His Son to take up our stead. There is nothing that will convince me that God is ever going to 'like' sin. There is nothing anyone can do to convince me that God is somehow going to love me more today than yesterday, or that He has a 'new' capacity to do it better today than yesterday. These are all 'change of mind' "change of character" ideas that perfection just doesn't allow (unless we've translated that word incorrectly). Have we? 1 Corinthians 13:10 Matthew 5:48 Psalm 18:30 Deuteronomy 32:4 Question: If all He does is perfect, why WOULD you want Him to change? Wouldn't it be "imperfect?" How is or isn't that possible? Philippians 3:12,15 1 Peter 5:10
1 John 3:2,3

Lon, I think that the problem (misunderstanding) here is that you are using an entirely different definition for change of mind. This is demonstrated where you say that no one ever changes their mind. I first dismissed that as Calvinist theology, but please recognize that when we as English speakers use the term, we say that we do change our mind. Likewise, in the same context, scripture shows that God has changed his mind.

If you change the meaning of the term to where no one ever changes their mind, of course this isn't going to match up any more. But there's still some of that philosophical bias back there, that something that is "perfect" cannot change?

Does that mean that if Jesus was perfect that he couldn't change his hair from black to blond? That is Jesus was perfect that he could not be changed from flesh to spirit?
Spoiler
That if a plate of food was perfect that we couldn't move the radish from one side to another? That a perfect die could not roll a six on one toss and a three on another? Or, as the finale, that a perfect God no longer has the exercise of his will and sovereignty because he is "so perfect" that he can't alter his own decree to respond to the hearts of his children. Such a saying has no use.
 

JudgeRightly

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Lon, I think that the problem (misunderstanding) here is that you are using an entirely different definition for change of mind. This is demonstrated where you say that no one ever changes their mind. I first dismissed that as Calvinist theology, but please recognize that when we as English speakers use the term, we say that we do change our mind. Likewise, in the same context, scripture shows that God has changed his mind.

If you change the meaning of the term to where no one ever changes their mind, of course this isn't going to match up any more. But there's still some of that philosophical bias back there, that something that is "perfect" cannot change?

Does that mean that if Jesus was perfect that he couldn't change his hair from black to blond? That is Jesus was perfect that he could not be changed from flesh to spirit?
Spoiler
That if a plate of food was perfect that we couldn't move the radish from one side to another? That a perfect die could not roll a six on one toss and a three on another? Or, as the finale, that a perfect God no longer has the exercise of his will and sovereignty because he is "so perfect" that he can't alter his own decree to respond to the hearts of his children. Such a saying has no use.
I think you forgot a formatting tag, just a heads-up!
 

Derf

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Lon, There was a lot in your post that I would like to reply to, but this particular subject came up in your post to [MENTION=16942]JudgeRightly[/MENTION], too, and I thought I'd attempt a response to it quickly.
Hebrew was, at one time, a limited language and words fell under multiple intents. Anach is the Hebrew word that means "to sigh." It is the word used for 'changed mind' or more properly 'repented.' The word has mostly to do with 'a heavy sigh.' So, "God breathed a heavy sigh, that He had made Saul king."

My understanding: A heavy sigh is much easier to take than 'repented' is for translation. I 'can' grasp God being relational and sad for all that transpired. He had told Saul to tell Israel, just chapters before, the problem with having a king in God's place. Moreover that the real problem was that they were rejecting God. In light, God didn't even want David as king, it was giving a people what they particularly were asking for.



In Him -Lon

In observation, we agree, I just disagree with terminology after that point, with most Open Theists. It isn't that "God adapts" imho. It is rather that we choose one or another of consequences. I gave an example: Kids and chores. If my kids do the dishes, something nice, if not, something of negative consequences. My mind changes not at all. I've the same mind regarding chores that I ever have had. Further, let's take the kids, as a must: I don't change toward them either. I have always loved them, but the consequence always follows the action. Could it even be accurately said that I 'changed' my action at that point? My problem is and always was, simply this: A "changing" God isn't a perfect God "If" Perfection cannot change (would be against the definition of perfection). Psalm 18:30 Deuteronomy 32:4


...


Speaking for Calvinists, it isn't embarrassing. You've posted 'change mind' as way down on the list, so certainly not the first nor preferable translation. It means literally 'to sigh' and in Hebrew even 'sounds' like a sigh. There is no necessity that such a sigh 'must mean' "repent."

You'd have the same case if I sighed in front of you heavily. You'd expect that I sighed heavily, no question there, but you'd not know exactly what the problem was from 'to sigh.' A translator, looking at the text, figured "God was repentant that He made Saul king." More accurately, "God sighed at making God king." It WOULD allow for a reader such as you or myself, to further wrestle with the text and meaning rather than attempting to make our job easier. Such is the hard task of translation work and I don't begrudge them for what looks to me, a corner-cut. But I definitely prefer to read anachah - to sigh/groan and figure it out from there.


Relent means 'desist' and is also a translation of this same 'sigh' word. Again, for both of us, "God groaned" or "sighed" is better as it allows us to discuss the intent of such expression of God. It allows for us to both test our hypothesis better to seek theology that is Him-centered as well. My only duty, in love to you, and you for me, is to bring one another closer to our Lord and Savior in understanding. I appreciate you wrestling therefore, over these scriptures and terms with me. In our Lord and Savior, -Lon

The problem with using the lighter translation of "sigh" is that then the 1 Sam 15 passage says God doesn't do that. The problem of contradiction persists no matter what consistent translation of the word you use, and the less important the action is in the "repent" part of 1Sam 15, the more important it makes the "not repent" part of 1 Sam 15.



Not sure if you agree with me, but 'relent' is an action, not a character change. I'm not sure where most Open Theists are at on this, but some or a good many may agree God's nature does not, and cannot change according to the above scriptures and many others. Further, the action change is rather the consequence of obedience or disobedience respectfully, thus it is not a change in God (the options are the same) but the preset conditions to be appropriately met. This happened in Saul's case too, he and all Israel were warned what would happen if the king was did not follow God's ordinances.
I think we're all in agreement here--that the "change" in "relenting" or "repenting" or even "sighing" is not a change in God's nature. No open theists I know of are arguing for such. The point is to show that SOME kinds of changes are allowed when discussing God, and if we can acknowledge SOME kinds of change, then it helps us to understand what DOESN'T change with God.

I'll put forward "purpose" as something that doesn't change with God. He knows what He is going to achieve in this world and with mankind, and no one will be able to prevent His achieving it. The problem we have is when we say we know what the purpose is, if we go beyond what God says it is.

So, if God changes His mind in terms of purpose (i.e., He decides NOT to save mankind), He would be lying. However, If God tells us He changes His mind about something that was not His "purpose", like having Saul and his sons be kings forever, we shouldn't have trouble with it, unless it somehow conflicts with some other aspect of God's characteristics or character. Here's where the "I change not" rubber has to meet the scriptural road--if God first tells Hezekiah (for instance) that he will die of his illness, and then tells him he will survive the illness, that is not a change of purpose, unless the purpose is to kill Hezekiah of that illness. So, in that case, there's no conflict with God's character for Him to decide not to have Hezekiah die yet.

Thus, the only objection, in the Hezekiah case, we can have to God actually changing His mind there is if all His actions with regard to hezekiah were determined before Hezekiah came to exist. Then we have to reinterpret the scripture to say that God didn't really mean Hezekiah would die of his illness, but that He was threatening him with such to get him to cry out to God. But a threat of this type would seem to make God the liar, rather than changing His mind on Hezekiah's demise.
 

Rosenritter

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As I told Judgerightly, Perfection, by definition, does not allow change, else it isn't perfect and such also, theologically points to a God who is less than perfect. Example: When Moses intervened between God and Israel for punishment, it was not that God 'needed His emotional anger held back from an injustice.' It was rather that Moses needed to fill the shoes of Israel's caring leader as well as be a type for the Intercessor to come.

If we assume that something that is perfect does not change, then how do we explain this passage?

Ezekiel 28:14-16 KJV
(14) Thou art the anointed cherub that covereth; and I have set thee so: thou wast upon the holy mountain of God; thou hast walked up and down in the midst of the stones of fire.
(15) Thou wast perfect in thy ways from the day that thou wast created, till iniquity was found in thee.
(16) By the multitude of thy merchandise they have filled the midst of thee with violence, and thou hast sinned: therefore I will cast thee as profane out of the mountain of God: and I will destroy thee, O covering cherub, from the midst of the stones of fire.

Perhaps if that statement was changed to "does not allow change, else it is no longer perfect?" That still leaves us with the perfect acorn that cannot become a perfect tree, and it still brings us back to the question of how Lucifer who was created perfect in every way was able to sin.
 
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Lon

Well-known member
So let's use a similar analogy.
Spoiler
Let's say I have kids, and I love and have always loved them, and will continue to love them no matter what.

Let's say that I tell them that I will in one month, without fail, take them to the big water park in a neighboring state. I then tell them, separately from telling them about the water park, that this month I want them to obey their mother, and do everything she asks them to do cheerfully.

A month passes, and they have done their chores and obeyed their mother, and even cheerfully. So we pack up, and start driving to the water park. But halfway there, the boy starts to annoy his sister and mother, who tells him to stop multiple times, until it gets to the point where it's unbearable to be in the car with him.

I then tell everyone that because of the actions of the boy, I will turn the car around and we will not go to the waterpark.

"But Dad, you promised!"

"No, don't use that argument on me. I fully intended to take everyone to the water park, without fail (in other words, it was an unconditional promise). But I cannot reward bad behavior with something good. So therefore, I repent of my decision to take everyone to the park, so we are turning around, and going home."


I fully intended to take them to the park, it was my will that I take them, I had no intention to not take them, but the actions of the boy forced my hand, so I could not do that which I said I would do.
For me, this never happens with God. There is always a preceding passage 'if' for conditional promises. I've found every one. There were no conditions regarding "All nations will be blessed" through Abraham conversely, so there was fulfillment. God cannot break an unconditional covenant, conditional ones are to be always met. In your case, if the boy had no prior conditions, like "if you ever misbehave in the car, we are going to turn around." For me, the conditions run into each other and so as a good parent, you must figure something out. For me? The boy is going to grandmother's if I had a preset condition. If not, I'd have to figure something out: "You need to reel it in or you will get no dessert" or some other consequence other than breaking an 'unconditional' promise. If your promise was not unconditional, then such is better up front or you look inconsistent (and are inconsistent) in your parenting, to me. It may well be, our theology follows our parenting or vise versa, but I do know God's unconditional promises are always kept. I've studied this out and found it true in other Open Theism threads and on my own studying.

Did I sigh? Yes. But more importantly, I changed my mind about taking them to the park, where I had no intention otherwise.
And unlike God, I believe this was inconsistent. In my studies, I know of no unconditional promise that wasn't kept.

In the same way, God, who has never intended to NOT fulfill His promise to Abraham, has, multiple times in the Bible, changed His mind about establishing them as a great nation because of their rebellion. He went from wanting to establish them, to not wanting to establish them, even to the point where even if Moses and Samuel were around, making intercession on Israel's behalf, He would STILL be angry at them, wanting to wipe them out.
You'll have to show me that unconditional promise to Abraham. I'm positive it was conditional. Joshua 21:45 Romans 9:6 Therefore, it is not only by my reckoning, but by the scriptures themselves to count all unconditional promises as met.
Perfection doesn't mean "unchanging." That's a pagan belief that comes from Plato, not the Bible.
Show me a scripture that disagrees with me? Hebrews 13:8 was written by Plato? You say something a bit later that has us agreeing, though*
Where did you get "a changing God isn't a perfect God" from? That sounds remarkably like it comes from Greek philosophy, with the same reasoning that anything that was perfect could not change and still be perfect. A perfect acorn would produce only imperfect trees. Regardless, I don't recall anyone saying that God changed. When someone changes their mind it doesn't mean their character changed.

Do you have a scripture that says that a changing God isn't a perfect God? I'm guessing that would be hard to produce. Maybe consider what might be influencing your impression on this one thing? If it wasn't scripture, where did that actually come from?
Plato wrongly taught that anything perfect cannot change, yet a perfect acorn grows into an oak tree (whereas an imperfect acorn doesn't grow at all).
Not perfect. 1 Corinthians 13:10 Scriptures are desperately needed at this point because I'm reading exactly the opposite, in them. It really doesn't matter what Plato thinks. It matters rather what scripture says. If Plato agrees? Great. Forget Plato, he is a distraction. I hate when Enyart does this. He isn't addressing the elephant in the room whenever he falls to that poor tack. Nobody is swayed by such a ploy and that is all it is ever seen as (not brow beating you, just have seen this much too often from Denver Bible. It doesn't work and there are tons of scripture, more importantly, to be laid and discussed upon the table. Imho, Plato nor Aristotle, nor Greek philosophy is ever appropriate 'bible' discussion and that's all I'm interested in when we disagree (and thank you ahead of time). :e4e:

Christ, as a boy, grew up from a baby to a man. He was perfect, yet he changed greatly, and the Bible even says Jesus "grew in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and man." That's a change in something (someone) perfect.
In this, we have to be very careful lest we have a "God who is becoming" rather than 'being' God. Mormons fully believe God was not once perfect, like we. So, while I read "Jesus grew in wisdom and stature" I really don't know exactly what that means. Do you? Was He less than God when He was only 12? Whatever we read into 'grew in wisdom and stature' it must needs to be scriptural. Sometimes, when it comes to stuff like this, I simply say "I don't know exactly what this means." When I say that, I'm also convinced (perhaps wrongly) that neither does anybody else around me. I'm fairly sure the Apostle Paul says that when perfect comes, that which is 'imperfect' passes. Perfect means 'finalized unimprovable."
And to take that one step further, Jesus who for eternity past, changed going from having one nature to two natures when He came to earth as a man.
Hebrews 13:8 It appears, just below, we agree.


*
Actions are changes. I've never said that the character or nature of God changes.
:up:

If you are sitting in a chair, and then you stand up, that's a change. You went from sitting to standing. That is the kind of change that most Calvinists seem to actually accept, but unfortunately they still seem to say "God doesn't change at all." Yet if God does one thing, and then does something else, that's a change, which makes the statement "God doesn't change at all" false. God's nature, that He is righteous, just, faithful, has not changed, but that doesn't mean He can't change at all
.Except you've said and embraced what Calvinists mean: That God's Character does not change. That is all a Calvinist means too, that God's nature does not change.



Actually, it doesn't. Nor does repent mean desist. Relent means "abandon or mitigate a harsh intention or cruel treatment" or "become less severe or intense."
Some of the 'ease off' is obsolete now for the meaning, but I can acquiesce/agree that it means to slacken up but 'stop' is certainly within the meaning. Here or there? Yeah, but not biblical. Thanks for sharpening my vocabulary. :up:
I looked up desist and relent and repent, and the first two are not synonyms, but interestingly enough, relent and repent are sort of synonyms, though not quite 100%. (Using Thesaurus.com.)
Again, thank you. It seems, from what I looked up, all can be synonymous. Need be? No, you are correct and I'll try to remember this when using these terms in the future.

As for the previous two paragraphs, I'll address them below.



Except it's not. Nowhere in the Bible does it use the Hebrew word for "relent", which is:
לְהִתְרַכֵּך
Either my Google-fu isn't very good, in that I can't seem to find any place in the bible where this word is used, or it's not used at all.

The Hebrew word for repent is this:
לְהִתְחַרֵט
As opposed to "relent" above, this word is used multiple times in the Bible.

It's a similar word to relent, but only repent is used, as far as I can tell. If you can show me a verse where "לְהִתְרַכֵּך" is used, I will gladly look at it and reconsider my position.



So then let's use "groaned" or "sighed" in Jeremiah 18 instead of "repent", and see if it makes any sense to use those words. I've already established above that "relent" ("לְהִתְרַכֵּך") is not the word used in the passage, the word used is "repent" ("לְהִתְחַרֵט").

The instant I speak concerning a nation and concerning a kingdom, to pluck up, to pull down, and to destroy it,if that nation against whom I have spoken turns from its evil, I will groan of the disaster that I thought to bring upon it.And the instant I speak concerning a nation and concerning a kingdom, to build and to plant it,if it does evil in My sight so that it does not obey My voice, then I will groan concerning the good with which I said I would benefit it. - Jeremiah 18:7-10 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Jeremiah18:7-10&version=NKJV

OR

The instant I speak concerning a nation and concerning a kingdom, to pluck up, to pull down, and to destroy it,if that nation against whom I have spoken turns from its evil, I will sigh of the disaster that I thought to bring upon it.And the instant I speak concerning a nation and concerning a kingdom, to build and to plant it,if it does evil in My sight so that it does not obey My voice, then I will sigh concerning the good with which I said I would benefit it. - Jeremiah 18:7-10 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Jeremiah18:7-10&version=NKJV

OR

The instant I speak concerning a nation and concerning a kingdom, to pluck up, to pull down, and to destroy it,if that nation against whom I have spoken turns from its evil, I will repent of the disaster that I thought to bring upon it.And the instant I speak concerning a nation and concerning a kingdom, to build and to plant it,if it does evil in My sight so that it does not obey My voice, then I will repent concerning the good with which I said I would benefit it. - Jeremiah 18:7-10 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Jeremiah18:7-10&version=NKJV

Which of those three makes the most sense?

The third option, right?
Well, 'sigh' is the term. Hebrew translation is dependent upon the context, and so where "sigh' makes sense to a Hebrew, for us, we don't use 'sigh' like they did. We use separate words, thus we translate this broader word with a more exacting word that makes sense 'to us.' Other words make as much sense for this broader term: "stop" 'desist' 'not do." Because you agree with me and others, that the change is an action, these are better translation words for what we are reading. I have no problem with translating the word, just that we do so as accurately as possible.



It's certainly refreshing to do this kind of study instead of debating fiercely on other topics with those who are uncompromising in their position.
From me too, and thank you. In Him -Lon
 
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JudgeRightly

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For me, this never happens with God. There is always a preceding passage 'if' for conditional promises. I've found every one. There were no conditions regarding "All nations will be blessed" through Abraham conversely, so there was fulfillment. God cannot break an unconditional covenant, conditional ones are to be always met. In your case, if the boy had no prior conditions, like "if you ever misbehave in the car, we are going to turn around." For me, the conditions run into each other and so as a good parent, you must figure something out. For me? The boy is going to grandmother's if I had a preset condition. If not, I'd have to figure something out: "You need to reel it in or you will get no dessert" or some other consequence other than breaking an 'unconditional' promise. If your promise was not unconditional, then such is better up front or you look inconsistent (and are inconsistent) in your parenting, to me. It may well be, our theology follows our parenting or vise versa, but I do know God's unconditional promises are always kept. I've studied this out and found it true in other Open Theism threads and on my own studying.

And unlike God, I believe this was inconsistent. In my studies, I know of no unconditional promise that wasn't kept.

You'll have to show me that unconditional promise to Abraham. I'm positive it was conditional. Joshua 21:45 Romans 9:6 Therefore, it is not only by my reckoning, but by the scriptures themselves to count all unconditional promises as met.

Show me a scripture that disagrees with me? Hebrews 13:8 was written by Plato? You say something a bit later that has us agreeing, though*

Not perfect. 1 Corinthians 13:10 Scriptures are desperately needed at this point because I'm reading exactly the opposite, in them. It really doesn't matter what Plato thinks. It matters rather what scripture says. If Plato agrees? Great. Forget Plato, he is a distraction. I hate when Enyart does this. He isn't addressing the elephant in the room whenever he falls to that poor tack. Nobody is swayed by such a ploy and that is all it is ever seen as (not brow beating you, just have seen this much too often from Denver Bible. It doesn't work and there are tons of scripture, more importantly, to be laid and discussed upon the table. Imho, Plato nor Aristotle, nor Greek philosophy is ever appropriate 'bible' discussion and that's all I'm interested in when we disagree (and thank you ahead of time). :e4e:

In this, we have to be very careful lest we have a "God who is becoming" rather than 'being' God. Mormons fully believe God was not once perfect, like we. So, while I read "Jesus grew in wisdom and stature" I really don't know exactly what that means. Do you? Was He less than God when He was only 12? Whatever we read into 'grew in wisdom and stature' it must needs to be scriptural. Sometimes, when it comes to stuff like this, I simply say "I don't know exactly what this means." When I say that, I'm also convinced (perhaps wrongly) that neither does anybody else around me. I'm fairly sure the Apostle Paul says that when perfect comes, that which is 'imperfect' passes. Perfect means 'finalized unimprovable."
Hebrews 13:8 It appears, just below, we agree.


* :up:

.Except you've said and embraced what Calvinists mean: That God's Character does not change. That is all a Calvinist means too, that God's nature does not change.



Actually, it doesn't. Nor does repent mean desist. Relent means "abandon or mitigate a harsh intention or cruel treatment" or "become less severe or intense." Some of the 'ease off' is obsolete now for the meaning, but I can acquiesce/agree that it means to slacken up but 'stop' is certainly within the meaning. Here or there? Yeah, but not biblical. Thanks for sharpening my vocabulary. :up:

Again, thank you. It seems, from what I looked up, all can be synonymous. Need be? No, you are correct and I'll try to remember this when using these terms in the future.


Well, 'sigh' is the term. Hebrew translation is dependent upon the context, and so where "sigh' makes sense to a Hebrew, for us, we don't use 'sigh' like they did. We use separate words, thus we translate this broader word with a more exacting word that makes sense 'to us.' Other words make as much sense for this broader term: "stop" 'desist' 'not do." Because you agree with me and others, that the change is an action, these are better translation words for what we are reading. I have no problem with translating the word, just that we do so as accurately as possible.



From me too, and thank you. In Him -Lon

Before I respond to this, could you fix the missing [QUOTE] tag in front of the highlighted text in your post?
 
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Rosenritter

New member
Show me a scripture that disagrees with me? Hebrews 13:8 was written by Plato? You say something a bit later that has us agreeing, though*

Not perfect. 1 Corinthians 13:10 Scriptures are desperately needed at this point because I'm reading exactly the opposite, in them. It really doesn't matter what Plato thinks. It matters rather what scripture says. If Plato agrees? Great. Forget Plato, he is a distraction. I hate when Enyart does this. He isn't addressing the elephant in the room whenever he falls to that poor tack. Nobody is swayed by such a ploy and that is all it is ever seen as (not brow beating you, just have seen this much too often from Denver Bible. It doesn't work and there are tons of scripture, more
importantly, to be laid and discussed upon the table. Imho, Plato nor Aristotle, nor Greek philosophy is ever appropriate 'bible' discussion and that's all I'm interested in when we disagree (and thank you ahead of time). :e4e:

1. Was he who we called Jesus a man when he created Adam?
2. Was he who we called Jesus a man when he walked among us in the flesh?

3. Was he who we called Jesus imperfect in any way when he created the worlds?
4. Was he who we called Jesus imperfect in any way when he walked among us in the flesh?

Unless you have some surprising (non-orthodox) answers for at least one of those questions, I don't see how you can maintain that "perfection, by definition, does not allow change."
 

Derf

Well-known member
My intention here is to respond to the parts I didn't respond to before. We'll see how well I do.
...
Let me ask this: Does it 'change God's mind' or does it 'change God's actions' rather? Both? To me, the mind is the same because it is set on specific actions, already ahead of time, regardless of what they are.
If "mind" means intentions, and "actions" is referring to future actions, then I don't see any difference. Changing a future action is the exact same as changing one's mind regarding doing or not doing that future action, once the future arrives. But I don't see the necessity of calling EVERYTHING God does an intention (which now shows its relationship to "purpose", as I talked about in the previous thread).


This, rather, would be catching God 'unaware.' If so, it is an easier traverse to believe from story, that God 'repented' that He had made Saul king. For me? Nothing in God's mind changed, ONLY the action prompted a change.
I think you're splitting hairs. If God set up King Saul as king, which potentially would include his progeny reigning, then deposed him before his progeny reigned, there was a change in God's mind. But NOT a change in His overall purpose. Obviously He had some purpose for Saul to become king and an opposite purpose to depose him, and there was an over-arching purpose of taking care of His people Israel while also hearing and answering their cries for something that was not good for them. The king thing is not unlike what happened when God first called the people to come listen to Him, and then agreed with the people when they asked for an intermediary.

Of course God 'acts' toward us according to what we deserve. Such is consequences, but let me give example:
"If you wash the dishes, we will go to a movie, if you do no chores for a week, you are grounded." My mind is exactly the same regarding chores with both and never changes, nor do I relent (if I'm being a good and consistent dad and my word means something). Now, even if there is no promise of one action or the other regarding the two (one negative, one positive), MY actions only display one thing: My consistent mind concerning chores and responsibility.
This is a pretty good example. In it you have the aver-arching purpose that doesn't change, and the underlying actions taken due to consequences. But it only works if the underlying actions you take are allowed to vary depending on what your children do. But if you pre-decide (before they are born) both how they are going to act and the underlying actions you are going to take, you aren't relating with them, you are relating with yourself, in a somewhat contradictory manner.


It would be, but context for our understanding is important. Having read 1 Samuel, and reading "God repented that He had made Saul king" I immediately went to my bible dictionary, because clearly within 8 to 11 verses, there was a contradiction. One said 'what God did' and the other taught 'God doesn't repent.' In that moment, I held 'my' understanding of 'repent' in question, especially knowing that one was a commentary on what happened, rather than specifically teaching me "God repents." As I'd read the rest of scripture, there is no such instruction, just that we should know He "doesn't."
That's why I offered Jer 18. It gives the instruction of what God does and says He will do in repenting. You have to allow the word "repent" to mean the same thing in both cases, and then find out why the one is characteristic of God and the other one is not.

You are saying He was not repenting of repenting, then? Am I following? You are saying (perhaps) that God repented of making Saul king, but not of removing him from the kingdom? (more in just a second)...


I'm not sure which 'repenting' we are focused on at this point. I've gotten a little lost in explanation. I've been trying to read it carefully, but need a little help at this venture BUT, I concur with what you surmise in the next sentence. :think:
Agreed that this gets a little confusing, but no, I was not suggesting God is not repenting of repenting, but not repenting of something He said He would do. In other words, He regrets the actions he took, because of the effect they had, which He did not intend. This is shown to be possible in numerous examples in the scriptures, based on people being able to effect their own will sometimes in contrast to God's will.


I'm not sure if my example helped. We do change and because we are moved from darkness to light, the contrast is significant. The promise was indeed a condition met, but we'd agree here, I believe, that the 'blessing' was given, yes toward the obedience, but irrevocably. In other words, I believe we both see the promise as unconditional, though based or given, upon a met condition.

Further, I'd think we all can understand that as a parent, my mind doesn't change really, at all, concerning chores (granted I'm not perfect so have room, but for this analogy, I think it works). Rather, my kids respond to a certain set of criteria set out, where my mind is exactly the same, regardless if they go the positive or negative consequence route. Both are teachable moments about what my mind believes about chores.
Your mind on the chores doesn't change. But your reaction to the children does, depending on their actions. This is in keeping with a God who reacts to autonomous people, but not in keeping with a God who plans everything people will do and think before the people exist.

In this you can see that there is a purpose to teach your children responsibility (chores) that doesn't change, but there are other temporary purposes like punishing or rewarding that do change. In other words, if your child ignores or blatantly disobeys, you purpose to punish or withhold reward UNTIL the behavior changes, but you don't know how long that bad behavior will last. With God, if He knows how long it will last, then He either planned it that way (and there's no need to make it last shorter) or He looks into the future to see how long it lasts (and there's no way to shorten it, because it is settled future).

Similarly, God's mind didn't truly change about Saul being king, did it? Hadn't just a few chapters before, Samuel given the people the inherent problems of wanting a king other than God? Further, when Saul failed, wasn't it already predicted? If so, did God's mind, in fact change, or was He always of the same mind concerning an obedient and conversely disobedient king?
God's mind did change about SAUL being king, but it didn't change about why a king wasn't the best for His people, nor about His overlooking the best for His people in giving them a king. And it also shows God working all things together, even using their desire for a king, for their good, even when some of the kings aren't good.

Open Theists believe God is surprised and that He discovers things He didn't know before. This coming from things "He made" that cannot do a thing without Him. It doesn't make logical sense to me. Moreover, it makes less biblical sense to me as well.

In Him -Lon
That would be a surprise for me, if something I made chose to do something I didn't intend for it to do (assuming I were a perfect maker). Unless I made the thing to be able to make its own choices. I get the feeling that in our quest for artificial intelligence, we might very well get to experience the chaos of God's similar choice to create man. And we might find out that if we don't destroy the world, like God did for Noah, we can't retain the AI technology.

I'm not so sure about whether God could be surprised. I believe He is aware of the possibilities, even the grossly repugnant ones. If that's different from the open theist pack, so be it.

But I don't have a problem with God finding out which of the choices His creations pick, not having to know them ahead of time.

I hope I haven't confused with my alternating use of "intentions" and "purposes"


For His glory,
Derf

PS
I am likely to bow out of the conversation for a week, as I go on vacation in a couple days, and I don't know for sure what kind of internet access I'll have.
 

Derf

Well-known member
Lon, I feel like it's three against one here, and I don't want to gang up on you, which I know makes it practically impossible to sufficiently respond to our posts.

But (don't you hate those "buts"?) I wanted to focus on this particular statement, similar to something you wrote to me.
...

.Except you've said and embraced what Calvinists mean: That God's Character does not change. That is all a Calvinist means too, that God's nature does not change.
...
In Him -Lon

If this is all Calvinists mean when they say "God does not change", then there's really no argument between Open Theism and Calvinism in terms of settled or open future.

But I contend that it is NOT all that Calvinists mean. They (not sure about you) use the phrase to mean that God never changes what He was going to do ("intentions" or "purposes"), down to the nth degree. If God EVER changes any of His intentions (even the smallest, most insignificant of them), then at least some of the future is "open". Open Theism is trying to say that God indeed DOES change some of His intentions, and it is demonstrably backed up with scripture, both didactic and non-didactic, as I've shown.

The only way to get past this is to re-interpret the passages where God says He will relent, repent, or "sigh" or whatever, or that He already has relented, repented, or "sighed" or whatever, as something different than what the text actually affirms.

I agree with you that where the presuppositions come from is not important. If one is wrong, we should be ready to abandon it. If Calvinism says that God never has and never will alter any of His intended actions, then that part of Calvinism must go.

This may be true for Open Theism, too. If the presuppositions result in contradictions with the scriptures, it requires a re-think, or a readjustment back to the things scripture says.

Thanks for listening and remaining in this conversation.
Derf
 

Rosenritter

New member
Lon, I feel like it's three against one here, and I don't want to gang up on you, which I know makes it practically impossible to sufficiently respond to our posts.

If this is all Calvinists mean when they say "God does not change", then there's really no argument between Open Theism and Calvinism in terms of settled or open future.

But I contend that it is NOT all that Calvinists mean. They (not sure about you) use the phrase to mean that God never changes what He was going to do ("intentions" or "purposes"), down to the nth degree. If God EVER changes any of His intentions (even the smallest, most insignificant of them), then at least some of the future is "open". Open Theism is trying to say that God indeed DOES change some of His intentions, and it is demonstrably backed up with scripture, both didactic and non-didactic, as I've shown.

It is hard to respond to multiple people at once. Since Derf is expressing my concerns here (see above) I volunteer for my other questions to wait.
 

Lon

Well-known member
1. Was he who we called Jesus a man when he created Adam?
Only insomuch as Nothing exists without God, therefore God is well acquainted with His creation. So "No, but..."
2. Was he who we called Jesus a man when he walked among us in the flesh?
Yes, and God.
3. Was he who we called Jesus imperfect in any way when he created the worlds?

4. Was he who we called Jesus imperfect in any way when he walked among us in the flesh?
Depends on what is inherent in the definition of 'perfect.'

Webster's says this:

Imperfect
Definition of imperfect<!--2. cxs --> <!--3. Entry level sls --> <!--4. Entry level def --> <!--Entry level ins (if def is present)--> 1 : not perfect: such as
a : defective
b of a flower : having stamens or pistils but not both
c : lacking or not involving sexual reproduction
  • the imperfect stage of a fungus


2 : of, relating to, or constituting a verb tense used to designate a continuing state or an incomplete action especially in the past

3 : not enforceable at law




According to Websters, the Lord Jesus Christ was imperfect in his preadolescence. At that point? I think very particular discussion helps and thank you for asking. Hopefully, you too see the problem with terms AND an unwillingness to build a theology doctrine off of that which we either do not understand, and/or is unclear.

Unless you have some surprising (non-orthodox) answers for at least one of those questions, I don't see how you can maintain that "perfection, by definition, does not allow change."
Actually, it IS orthodox. It is best to leave off of blanketed assertions until we discuss this out clearly. It serves no purpose simply to posture sides at this point. -Lon
 

Lon

Well-known member
It is hard to respond to multiple people at once. Since Derf is expressing my concerns here (see above) I volunteer for my other questions to wait.

I don't feel ganged up on. I've always greatly appreciated you three gentlemen. I've been doing end-of-summer family stuff and enjoying it, so if you guys have enough patience, I'm in. Thank you, you three. My sincere appreciations. -Lon
 

Rosenritter

New member
Only insomuch as Nothing exists without God, therefore God is well acquainted with His creation. So "No, but..."

Yes, and God.

Depends on what is inherent in the definition of 'perfect.'

Webster's says this:

Imperfect
Definition of imperfect<!--2. cxs --> <!--3. Entry level sls --> <!--4. Entry level def --> <!--Entry level ins (if def is present)--> 1 : not perfect: such as
a : defective
b of a flower : having stamens or pistils but not both
c : lacking or not involving sexual reproduction
  • the imperfect stage of a fungus


2 : of, relating to, or constituting a verb tense used to designate a continuing state or an incomplete action especially in the past

3 : not enforceable at law




According to Websters, the Lord Jesus Christ was imperfect in his preadolescence. At that point? I think very particular discussion helps and thank you for asking. Hopefully, you too see the problem with terms AND an unwillingness to build a theology doctrine off of that which we either do not understand, and/or is unclear.


Actually, it IS orthodox. It is best to leave off of blanketed assertions until we discuss this out clearly. It serves no purpose simply to posture sides at this point. -Lon

No offense taken at the Webster's technicality, but we at least must agree that there was a point when God was entirely spirit, and another point in which he was truly manifest in the flesh. Is that a change? Perhaps not a change in his character, but certainly a change in his view and experience. Had God literally wept before? Jesus wept. Had he bled and born our transgressions before? He may have planned this from the foundation of the world and even spelled it out in the names of the patriarchs, but he was once in one form and then he was in another.

Mark 14:35-36 KJV
(35) And he went forward a little, and fell on the ground, and prayed that, if it were possible, the hour might pass from him.
(36) And he said, Abba, Father, all things are possible unto thee; take away this cup from me: nevertheless not what I will, but what thou wilt.

I don't want to get too far into possible implications of the above, except to say that at least for Jesus on earth, God was willing to reconsider whether things should continue as he had planned. Jesus did continue to the cross "not what I will but what thou wilt" but he was wiling to consider the possibility. I think this is a type of evidence that the mind of God is not rigid or inflexible, that it can and does respond to changes in our world.
 
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Lon

Well-known member
My intention here is to respond to the parts I didn't respond to before. We'll see how well I do.
If "mind" means intentions, and "actions" is referring to future actions, then I don't see any difference. Changing a future action is the exact same as changing one's mind regarding doing or not doing that future action, once the future arrives. But I don't see the necessity of calling EVERYTHING God does an intention (which now shows its relationship to "purpose", as I talked about in the previous thread).
I've been trying to demonstrate to this point in thread, that God doesn't and cannot 'change His mind.' The reason partly falls into the discussion I'm having with Rosenritter regarding perfection. The Bible says God is perfect, consistent, and trustworthy. A 'change of mind' to me, implicates whoever is accused/assessed of it, negatively where 'change of mind' always carries negative connotation either before or after the action. Further, I've problems with the term anyway, because nobody ever really does 'change their mind.' Such is impossible. We only have one mind: More so for God.


I think you're splitting hairs. If God set up King Saul as king, which potentially would include his progeny reigning, then deposed him before his progeny reigned, there was a change in God's mind. But NOT a change in His overall purpose. Obviously He had some purpose for Saul to become king and an opposite purpose to depose him, and there was an over-arching purpose of taking care of His people Israel while also hearing and answering their cries for something that was not good for them. The king thing is not unlike what happened when God first called the people to come listen to Him, and then agreed with the people when they asked for an intermediary.
I disagree, on the above grounds and on the grounds of this quote of mine you are responding to, which is an implication not only that God is given to whim (mind-changes), but fourthly, that I also believe God foreknows as a biblical-given. "Prognosis" means 'before' and 'knows' (knows, beforehand).
This is a pretty good example. In it you have the aver-arching purpose that doesn't change, and the underlying actions taken due to consequences. But it only works if the underlying actions you take are allowed to vary depending on what your children do. But if you pre-decide (before they are born) both how they are going to act and the underlying actions you are going to take, you aren't relating with them, you are relating with yourself, in a somewhat contradictory manner.
I agree it 'can' follow that logical flow, but I'm not certain such is the only logical outcome of foreknowledge. It goes back, for me, to the Garden. Genesis 3:1 was essential and necessary for Adam and Eve to have fallen, not by God's intent. That He knew the serpent was in the Garden? Yes, I don't think we can contradict God's omnipresence nor what even is a given in Open Theism, concerning "all that 'can' be known." What that means to me is very simply, that for both of us, regardless, there is information that we simply have to equally say "I don't know" to. For me? I can guess and reason a bit, but not very far, as far as mysteries go.

That's why I offered Jer 18. It gives the instruction of what God does and says He will do in repenting. You have to allow the word "repent" to mean the same thing in both cases, and then find out why the one is characteristic of God and the other one is not.
Numbers 23:19 — God is not a man that he should lie, or a son of man that he should repent. 1 Samuel 15:29 — The Glory of Israel will not lie or repent; for he is not a man, that he should repent. :think:

John Piper, a Calvinist, agrees with you, btw. I disagree even with John Piper here. He says "God repents." I say, specifically, that such is a translation problem. God does not repent. I agree with the above two verses with no equivocation. Piper (and you guys) are certainly within proper scriptural interpretation, that such can mean specifically, "does not repent 'like a man.'"
However, such can read, and I take it that way: Man repents, God does not.
Nacham, again, is the Hebrew word for 'to sigh.' It is open to context for driving translation and understanding, thus I do believe it is not necessary nor always appropriate to translate the word 'repent.' It can mean "sighed, pitied" etc.


Agreed that this gets a little confusing, but no, I was not suggesting God is not repenting of repenting, but not repenting of something He said He would do. In other words, He regrets the actions he took, because of the effect they had, which He did not intend. This is shown to be possible in numerous examples in the scriptures, based on people being able to effect their own will sometimes in contrast to God's will.
See, this is a change in God, and as I've said, has a negative connotation and negative commentary upon the character and nature of God to me. It carries the idea that "God was not 'righteously' angry and 'now He is sorry." Sanders, a leading Open Theist says about the same: "God makes mistakes." To me? Maligns Gods righteousness, holiness, perfection, and goodness. It means God 'wasn't' as righteous, perfect, holy, good, or appropriate 'prior.' It seems that it does, in fact, suggest God is repenting, and repenting of His repenting. James 1:8 God cannot be accused of the same thing man is accused of, or He cannot be God.


Your mind on the chores doesn't change. But your reaction to the children does, depending on their actions. This is in keeping with a God who reacts to autonomous people, but not in keeping with a God who plans everything people will do and think before the people exist.
I disagree. Such is letting my passions rule me and the situation, instead of a better level-head. The circumstances of my 'this or that' show both my care and concern as well as give appropriate relational action to my children. They don't need to see me screaming, then 'repenting' of it later. This is a lack of patience and longsuffering. God's character and nature are consistent and trustworthy. While I believe you and every Open Theist agrees with this statement about God, the argument often points to the opposite to me: A God who is 'inconsistent' and not quite as stable as I'd hoped. I can 'win Him over on a dime' by my prayer intervention.

Open Theist: That is good! It means God is relational to us and our prayers!
Me: That is bad! It means God WASN'T as good or intelligent as I was when I happened to pray????? It makes no sense to me (correct any mischaracterization. We all carry our own understandings into other's worldviews and sometimes it just doesn't work, but it IS what it looks like to me, thank you, in Him).

In this you can see that there is a purpose to teach your children responsibility (chores) that doesn't change, but there are other temporary purposes like punishing or rewarding that do change. In other words, if your child ignores or blatantly disobeys, you purpose to punish or withhold reward UNTIL the behavior changes, but you don't know how long that bad behavior will last. With God, if He knows how long it will last, then He either planned it that way (and there's no need to make it last shorter) or He looks into the future to see how long it lasts (and there's no way to shorten it, because it is settled future).
Hebrews 12:5-13 For me: Stability is the one thing I did NOT have growing up. When my mother married a man at 16, I had stability for a few short years. When there is consistency and stability that does NOT change, I was healed. I take GREAT comfort in what seems to disturb Open Theists: "No instability of choice." I'd MUCH rather have Jesus perfecting me, than trying to figure this out on my own. This 'instability' factor of me is certainly nothing I desire and more over, nothing that'd give me comfort about God. His consist, perfect, loving, unchanging, stable nature is exactly what ALL of us need. There is NO stability in my poor choices of sin. I've nothing to teach God. He has everything to teach me and without Him and His correction, I'm lost and hopeless. A settled future excites me, doesn't distress me.
God's mind did change about SAUL being king, but it didn't change about why a king wasn't the best for His people, nor about His overlooking the best for His people in giving them a king. And it also shows God working all things together, even using their desire for a king, for their good, even when some of the kings aren't good.
This assumes God does not have foreknowledge etc. Again, I have no hope or comfort at all in what can change on a whim.

That would be a surprise for me, if something I made chose to do something I didn't intend for it to do (assuming I were a perfect maker). Unless I made the thing to be able to make its own choices. I get the feeling that in our quest for artificial intelligence, we might very well get to experience the chaos of God's similar choice to create man. And we might find out that if we don't destroy the world, like God did for Noah, we can't retain the AI technology.
It'd take something wicked to 'program wicked' into such a thing. We have hackers, so know what malicious code is, but I'm not afraid of AI. I'm afraid of evil getting a hold of something good or potentially good.

I'm not so sure about whether God could be surprised. I believe He is aware of the possibilities, even the grossly repugnant ones. If that's different from the open theist pack, so be it.
I think a good many Open Theists believe God is 'omnicompetent' with you on this, though I believe it is tied to Arminian theology.

But I don't have a problem with God finding out which of the choices His creations pick, not having to know them ahead of time.
That'd have God "surprised" though, to some degree. I'm not sure how it can be both.

I hope I haven't confused with my alternating use of "intentions" and "purposes"
Part of the good of this thread is that we get to put our own ideas and feelings down and trust one another enough to do so. For me, getting to put our ideas down and have them interacted upon is worth a great deal for the effort. I hope so for you too. I don't think we are going to make one another change, but I DO think God uses us to help us see another's perspective and I do see us as brothers and sisters in Christ who do need to care, whether we see eye to eye on everything or not. We often want to cookie-cutter another, but that isn't our greatest need. Our greatest need is to grow in Christ and if we do a good job, He is seen.

For His glory,
Derf

PS
I am likely to bow out of the conversation for a week, as I go on vacation in a couple days, and I don't know for sure what kind of internet access I'll have.
Appreciate your thoughts here. Thank you. -Lon
 

Lon

Well-known member
Lon, I feel like it's three against one here, and I don't want to gang up on you, which I know makes it practically impossible to sufficiently respond to our posts.

But (don't you hate those "buts"?) I wanted to focus on this particular statement, similar to something you wrote to me.


If this is all Calvinists mean when they say "God does not change", then there's really no argument between Open Theism and Calvinism in terms of settled or open future.

But I contend that it is NOT all that Calvinists mean. They (not sure about you) use the phrase to mean that God never changes what He was going to do ("intentions" or "purposes"), down to the nth degree. If God EVER changes any of His intentions (even the smallest, most insignificant of them), then at least some of the future is "open". Open Theism is trying to say that God indeed DOES change some of His intentions, and it is demonstrably backed up with scripture, both didactic and non-didactic, as I've shown.

The only way to get past this is to re-interpret the passages where God says He will relent, repent, or "sigh" or whatever, or that He already has relented, repented, or "sighed" or whatever, as something different than what the text actually affirms.

I agree with you that where the presuppositions come from is not important. If one is wrong, we should be ready to abandon it. If Calvinism says that God never has and never will alter any of His intended actions, then that part of Calvinism must go.

This may be true for Open Theism, too. If the presuppositions result in contradictions with the scriptures, it requires a re-think, or a readjustment back to the things scripture says.

Thanks for listening and remaining in this conversation.
Derf
I hit on this a bit above in my last post to you. Part of the problem, for me, is that I see God as "right" always, and me as 'sometimes right' when I'm like Him. There is no comfort at all (not my only interest, the Bible is important here, but I'm trying to say something that hits me fundamentally at my core) from a God who can bend to my will. Why? Because I'm not right always. If I am, I kind of expect God to be there already, with me being and becoming like Him. In addition, it 'seems' that you are describing a God a little TOO like me, meaning the things I actually hate in myself like 1) mistakes due to my Fallen nature 2) my struggle against ego vs. my need to love my fellow man, family, and kids 3) my inability to do things perfect the first time....are also by implication, 'traits of God.' This is not at all a comforting scenario. I take way more comfort from scripture when it says God is NOT like a man, nor does He think like one. Why? Because I'm longing for something else 1 John 3:2
 

Rosenritter

New member
I hit on this a bit above in my last post to you. Part of the problem, for me, is that I see God as "right" always, and me as 'sometimes right' when I'm like Him. There is no comfort at all (not my only interest, the Bible is important here, but I'm trying to say something that hits me fundamentally at my core) from a God who can bend to my will. Why? Because I'm not right always. If I am, I kind of expect God to be there already, with me being and becoming like Him. In addition, it 'seems' that you are describing a God a little TOO like me, meaning the things I actually hate in myself like 1) mistakes due to my Fallen nature 2) my struggle against ego vs. my need to love my fellow man, family, and kids 3) my inability to do things perfect the first time....are also by implication, 'traits of God.' This is not at all a comforting scenario. I take way more comfort from scripture when it says God is NOT like a man, nor does He think like one. Why? Because I'm longing for something else 1 John 3:2

God in heaven is difficult to understand. He is far away, no man has seen the Father. If we want to know what he is really like, we look to the image of the invisible God, the express image of his person, Jesus. As he walked among us he showed love and anger and enjoyed being at weddings and he even wept. God isn't unfeeling, he isn't made of unchanging granite that is unaffected by those he loves, rather he is passionate. That, I think, is one of the more important implications of what we are talking around.
 

Lon

Well-known member
God in heaven is difficult to understand. He is far away, no man has seen the Father. If we want to know what he is really like, we look to the image of the invisible God, the express image of his person, Jesus. As he walked among us he showed love and anger and enjoyed being at weddings and he even wept. God isn't unfeeling, he isn't made of unchanging granite that is unaffected by those he loves, rather he is passionate. That, I think, is one of the more important implications of what we are talking around.

My second step-father was relatively passionless and aloof. My first step-father, full of passion: emoting first, asking questions MAYBE later. Real father? Same. There is no comfort you can give from a 'passionate' father perspective: All bad for me. My second step-father loved me, no question, incredibly better and more importantly: Consistent. I have no problem with God 'caring' but if 'passion' means 'out-of-control' and 'ruled by' I'm out. I'm convinced scripture does not portray Christ that way. Passionate? Yes. Emoting first, thinking later? :nono: That isn't much help to any of us. In psychology, we know what makes up the better parents: They are incredibly more consistent than the poor ones and don't emote on their children. They are proactive which leads to a lot more controlled learning and growing up with clear parameters and guidelines. In fact, the more the better. If that makes a 'good' parent and God is perfect? No question in my mind, what kids want is not a parent that says 'yes' after whining enough. A parent that gives clear guidelines is incredibly more important.

Look up the character of God on a Google search. You'll find 'faithful, trustworthy, holy, righteous, perfect, merciful. You'll not see often 'passionate.' While I believe God is 'as much against sin' as is possible, I don't believe He is going to suddenly become more angry. That's not, for me, what passionate means.

If I asked an Open Theist: If God came down and drove, would He ever have a wreck? I'm not sure of the answer. For me? :nono:

Point: Passion has to do with God experiencing 'new' things when the Open Theist says and means the word. For me, it is merely the expression of a consistent God who is perfect. While Aristotle or Plato 'may' have come up with right ideas or wrong ones about perfection, I grasp logically, why a God from which all things comes, necessarily means that He is as opposed to sin as He is ever going to be and He is as loving of a Father as He is ever going to be. There is no 'more' in God else it comes from outside of Him. For, I think, all the right reasons, God gave us Isaiah and Colossians 1:17 Logically, these necessarily gives us a definition of God, from Him, that is infinite and beyond. Unfortunately, too many humans get caught up in 'this' universe and think somehow, in this incredibly tiny thing they think is massive, that God is somehow clueless as to what it contains or 'can' contain. This simply isn't logical. Put the ocean in a glass, and God knows everything that is or 'can be' in the glass. There is nothing else but the content of the glass. My analogy breaks down because it too is caught in physical constraints (there is no glass, it is just analogy to get us to think a tiny tiny bit, from God's perspective). God is well beyond our limited minds and at least I know this, implicitly. Christ came to reach even the most simple of us, but my comfort comes most often from beyond to a God who is more than I can ever hope, think or imagine. Paul repeatedly expressed this in His writings. Let me put it just one more way: I love Christ coming down to show us real love from the Father John 3:16 BUT my hope is NOT Him living here with us, but us going to live and be with Him beyond these small confines. 1 John 3:2 1 John 2:15 Hebrews 11:10
 

Rosenritter

New member
My second step-father was relatively passionless and aloof. My first step-father, full of passion: emoting first, asking questions MAYBE later. Real father? Same. There is no comfort you can give from a 'passionate' father perspective: All bad for me.

I think that what you are saying here is reflecting on your theology and perspective of God: you seem to have an impression that passion is a character flaw. Tertullian (whom I wholly disapprove of on multiple counts) was massively upset that anyone would suggest that our Father in heaven was passionate. He invented the term patrapassionism which he labelled as heresy to use as a label against his opponents, objecting that God the Father would never allow himself to suffer or feel for his creation. He wanted Jesus to be a separate thing that could contain all of "flawed" feeling and ability to feel pain, leaving other portions of a "Perfect" God untouched.

I don't think this is a right view of God nor how he has revealed himself to us. If you look for what he is seeking, of people after his own heart, he looks for those who have compassion, and mercy, who sigh and cry for the evils of the world. When doctrinal statements of men idolize and elevate Platonic and Gnostic ideas of God as "perfect, untouchable, unable to be touched, not weakened by feeling" this has a negative effect on the gospel. Calvinism seems to proceed on these assumptions and takes it to an additional degree, uncaring (or powerless) to the degree that he cannot be appealed to by prayer.

But Passion is not a character flaw. To the contrary, it is a vital expression of his character, even an essential requirement of our salvation. God's love is passionate, and without his passion there would have been no Passion of the Christ, he would not have gone to the cross and why would he loved the world enough to want to redeem us? I realize that it is very hard to shake impressions, but I think scripture by itself gives a better picture of God than scripture underneath the weight of theological interpretations.
 
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