Bible readers prefer King James version
I prefer carrots over broccoli - both remain a vegetable.
Bible readers prefer King James version
Not if they are King James Bible believers. Otherwise, Yes, they are just spinning their wheels and coming up with their own opinions, that are different from everybody else's opinions.
"In those days there was no king in Israel; every many did that which was right in his own eyes." Judges 21:25
Why didn't you quote your inerrant KJV?Not if they are King James Bible believers. Otherwise, Yes, they are just spinning their wheels and coming up with their own opinions, that are different from everybody else's opinions.
"In those days there was no king in Israel; every many did that which was right in his own eyes." Judges 21:25
More accurate than any other, compared to what? What is the standard you are using to compare which translations are more accurate than others?
This is where the Received Text comes in. The MSS that were available at the time English coalesced into a world language ready to take the truth to the nations of the world, were, and are still, deemed by KJV proponents to be the ones God provided for the purpose. These texts were considered to be the only ones "received" for the purpose of translation into modern English when it emerged.
This was long before Vaticanus and Sinaiticus were discovered. These witnesses are corrupt and God did not want them to have an influence in the translation of the English Bible. Subsequent versions give these texts preference over the Received text.
(Note: Vaticanus existed but was shut up in the Vatican and could not be viewed by protestants. Another blessing!)
Accuracy is tested against the Received, God-provided texts.
I prefer carrots over broccoli - both remain a vegetable.
Blasphemer! :sozo2:
This is where the Received Text comes in. The MSS that were available at the time English coalesced into a world language ready to take the truth to the nations of the world, were, and are still, deemed by KJV proponents to be the ones God provided for the purpose. These texts were considered to be the only ones "received" for the purpose of translation into modern English when it emerged.
This was long before Vaticanus and Sinaiticus were discovered. These witnesses are corrupt and God did not want them to have an influence in the translation of the English Bible. Subsequent versions give these texts preference over the Received text.
(Note: Vaticanus existed but was shut up in the Vatican and could not be viewed by protestants. Another blessing!)
Accuracy is tested against the Received, God-provided texts.
based on whose authority?
the church had the authority to give us the bible
how did king james get the authority to translate it?
King James did not translate it. As the King of England he commissioned its production in modern English for his English subjects.
Will Kinney, you asked Bob and I for mistakes in the King James Version. Our latest post contains some incorrect English translations from the Hebrew and Greek that are found in the KJV. Thanks.
P.S. We have no desire to put down the King James Bible. We are pointing out these mistakes solely to refute the extreme position of the KJO movement, not to claim that the King James Bible is a poor translation. You can quote me on this, the King James translation is the best English translation we have.
Then the Received texts must also be God's inerrant words (something WK has denied).
Because he commissioned it.so why do you call it the king james version?
I think you have misunderstood Mr. Kinney's position here somewhat. If these copies of the originals did not exist, then the Bible could never have been produced. But, on their own, they were not a "Bible".
The received text is a compilation made from a group of copies of more than 5000 MSS and fragments which were not complete or compiled so it was impossible to point to a complete, cover to cover, Bible. Some of these MSS included minor variants that needed to be reconciled. This is the extent to which they cannot be considered complete or inerrant on their own but they are the basis for the KJV to the exclusion of MSS made available since then.
I have asked WK pretty much this question a couple of times in the grandstands and I haven't got an answer. Like BE/WD, I tried to piece from research what version it was that WK claimed was the perfect inerrant one and it indicated the Cambridge 1769. Which is what I suspected at a much earlier point in the debate. But asked WK to confirm this and that it is without error, no answer was the loud reply.So then you harangue believers by asking them: Show us those originals if you can; let’s go out and purchase that inerrant text; you don’t really believe in a currently existing (present tense!) inerrant text do you; you don’t have an inerrant text do?
Yep! God will have all men to be saved, AND to come unto the knowledge of the truth (1 Timothy 2:4 KJV). That cannot happen when words, verses, the deity of the Lord Jesus Christ, the blood, our pattern and doctrine to the church are changed or missing.Yes, the gospel.
But after we are saved, we need to be throughly furnished unto all good works.
Yep! God will have all men to be saved, AND to come unto the knowledge of the truth (1 Timothy 2:4 KJV). That cannot happen when words, verses, the deity of the Lord Jesus Christ, the blood, our pattern and doctrine to the church are changed or missing.