ARCHIVE: The "Great tribulation" and the Testimony of the Early Church Fathers

jpholding

Dispeller of Fantasies
Banned
Tin Can Tango

Tin Can Tango

Having now read over the entire 7 pages thus far of this discussion, I've decided to zero in on the following...and not cross paths too much with that which has already been sufficiently answered by others...

First these words from a little brown mouse named Jerry...who reminds me rather of the folks at church who think "apologetics" means "I'm sorry I'm a Christian" and who would accuse me of heresy and disrespect for saying Deuteonomy was modeled after a Hittite suzerainty treaty...

Common sense tells us that if the “great tribulation” had in fact occurred in AD70,then men living so close in time to this event would know for sure if it had occurred or not, and if the antichrist had come or not!

To quote that equally great philosopher, Bill the Cat: Ack, pfft. "Common sense" tells us no such thing. If it did we would never have people today blindly ignorant of history who think that the "Sermon on the Mount" was so called because it was delievered on horseback.

And this despite the fact that some of them were pupils of one who had studied directly at the knee of the Apostle John--the very author of the Revelation!

Heck, some of the worst heretics were supposed to have studied at the knees of Apostles as well.

Now for Sir Tinpants of Dispensalia:

Mat 24:21 For then there will be great tribulation, such as has not been since the beginning of the world until this time, no, nor ever shall be. One would think an event such as described above might get more than a one sentence description in a common encyclopedia.

Even if "such as has not been since the beginning of the world until this time, no, nor ever shall be." were a figure of speech (as you assert) the figure of speech would have meaning. That meaning would be that the Great Tribulation would be a INCREDIBLE event! Huge, massive and certainly close to one of the worst events on the face of the planet!

We need not hear further talk of your ego exploding, Sir Tinpants. :D

DD has started out well here with talk of ancient hyperbole. Why not reinfornce the point? I would recommend that all non-preterists read the work of that awful heretic G. B. Caird entitled
Languge and Imagery of the Bible to get a clue that when reading the Scriptures they are not reading modern news reports.
Pardon some self-plagiarization if I may...

1 Samuel 15:8 And he took Agag the king of the Amalekites alive, and utterly destroyed all the people with the edge of the sword.

Um. A people here recorded as being "utterly destroyed" comes back making trouble just a few chapters later in 1 Samuel. Isn't that funny. Well, compare this to an inscription offered by Pharaoh Ramesses III:

I slew the Denyon in their islands, while the Tjekker and Philistines were made ashes. The Sherden and the Washesh of the sea were made non-existent, captured all together and brought on captivity to Egypt like the sands of the shore.

Cleary when Ramsses tells us his enemies were "made non-existent," he was not meaning this literally, since he goes on to indicate that they were captured. Try some of these lines from the Victory Stele of Merneptah:

Not one of the Nine Bows lifts his head:
Tjehenu is vanquished, Khatti at peace,
Canaan is captive with all woe.
Ashkelon is conquered, Gezer seized,
Yanoam made nonexistent;
Israel is wasted, bare of seed,
Khor is become a widow for Egypt.
All who roamed have been subdued.

Pretty seasoned trash talk, and if you take it all literally you'll be in a heapin' world of semantic and historical hurt. Yanoam made nonexistent? No seed left for Israel:? Golly. In ancient context, such claims as 1 Samuel 15:8 and Dan. 12:1 make are not to be taken literally, as though God or Daniel had taken out some historical yardstick across eternity and actually measured things like number of deaths, etc. They are ancient "trash talk" of war -- no more.

Such rhetorical emphasis typifies ancient and even modern Semitic cultures.Caird [110ff] notes the frequent use of hyperbole among Semitic peoples, and notes that "its frequent use arises out of a habitual cast of mind" which tends to view matters in extremes, or as we would say, "black and white." The Semitic mindset is dogmatic, and despises doubt; things are either one way or another, and there is no room for introspection. When the Scriptures speak of an event in terms like Dan. 12:1 and the other verses noted, you need to get off your Western glasses and ead with Eastern eyes.

More examples may be found from Rihbany's The Syrian Christ [108ff]. I think this quote from Rihbany are sufficient:

A case may be overstated or understated, not necessarily for the purpose of deceiving, but to impress the hearer with the significance or insignificance of it. If a sleeper who has been expected to rise at sunrise should oversleep and need to be awakened, say half an hour or an hour later than the appointed time, he is then aroused with the call, 'Arise, it is noon already...' Of a strong and brave man it is said, 'He can split the earth.'

Rihbany offers other examples of such sayings from daily life. Here is a welcome he received from an old friend when he came to his home: "You have extremely honored me by coming into my abode. I am not worthy of it. This house is yours; you may burn it if you wish. My children are also at your disposal; I would sacrifice them all for your pleasure." The Westerner who hears this might well be shocked and offended, but what is being said behind the verbiage is no more than "I am delighted to see you; please make yourself at home."

Want more? Pilch and Malina in the Handbook of Biblical Social Values concur [52]. They note that in modern Western society, culture is tied to precision; time is a commodity, and dramatic orientation wastes time by not getting to the point. Unlike in the ancient world, when dramatic speech and eloquence were held in high esteem, "Creativity, imagination, and boasting are activities that waste precious time" and "have no place in a society driven by productivity: machines will tolerate no exaggeration, imprecision, or tardiness."

In short, Sir Tinpants, you have signed on the dotted line of the wrong semantic contract. The statement: "....apocalyptic language is the answer when the text flies in the face of preterism but literalism is the preterists best friend when the preterists want to battle the futurists" is an 18 wheeler loaded with naivete, to say nothing of the sort of accusation that Farrell Till would throw in the air. Someone like Josephus knew better, which is why he saw no problem in using those very words to describe the events of 70. Now as to this bit of hermeneutical homicide:

Revelation 9:18 By these three plagues a third of mankind was killed' by the fire and the smoke and the brimstone which came out of their mouths.

Unfortunately, Sir Tinpants, "mankind" is a wee bit of a jaundiced translation. The word there is just "men"/"man". :D There is no delimiter specifying all of the human race here.

Further proving my point that preterists haven't a clue as to what dispensationalism is all about. Thanks for the demonstration JP!

Goldurn, how can we get a clue when dispys keep shifting the goalposts to explain away all their problems? :D

Yoikes and away,

JP
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
We dispensationalists keep waiting for even one of the preterists to explain the meaning of the verses which we have put forward.

They keep saying that it is forthcoming,but it never arrives.Instead,we see Dee Dee once again appealing to the testimony of those who lived near the time of their imagined "great tribulation".But why would Dee Dee ever use their testimony as evidence,since she herself says "that the early Church had a very confused and muddled eschatology" (01-18-2003 12:25 PM).

I guess appealing to "confused and muddled eschatology" is better in her opinion than offering no evidence at all.

Perhaps Mr.jpholding will give us his interpretation as to when the following events took place.After all,he seems to think that he has all the answers.We see the Lord say:

"And it shall come to pass,in that day,that I will seek to destroy all the nations that come against Jerusalem"(Zech.12:9).

And in fact the verses that follow show Him fighting against those nations:

"For I will gather all the nations against Jerusalem to battle...then shall the Lord go forth,and fight against those nations,as when He fought in the day of battle"(Zech.14:2,3).

Surely Mr.jpholding will not say that this occured in Jereusalem in 70AD.After all,these Scriptual passages state that when all the nations are brought against Jerusalem that the Lord will fight against those nations.And we would never even entertain the notion that the Lord would loose this battle,would we?

Or perhaps Mr.jpholding thinks that the Lord did fight a loosing battle.

But if he does not think that these prophesies are in reference to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70AD,then perhaps Mr.jpholding will explain when it will occur.

After all,"all Scripture is given by inspiration of God,and is profitable for doctrine,for reproof,for correction..."(2Tim.3:16).

In His grace,--Jerry
 

Nathon Detroit

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
LOL!!! Never have I read more gobbledegook and obfuscation in my life!!!

You preterists are shameless!

My prayer ...
Lord please never allow me to maintain a world-view or theology that forces me to obfuscate and avoid direct questions at every turn.

Faramir....
Answer my question....

Since you have reduced all or at very least MOST of Revelation to "apocalyptic language" how could you convince a futurist that the following verse is NOT "apocalyptic language"?

Assuredly, I say to you, this generation will by no means pass away till all these things take place. - Matthew 24:34
 

jpholding

Dispeller of Fantasies
Banned
Two for the dustbin

Two for the dustbin

Jerry, Jerry, Quite Contrary --

Perhaps Mr.jpholding will give us his interpretation as to when the following events took place.After all,he seems to think that he has all the answers.

And what makes you think I don't? :D Jerry, I have seen you argue. I read Ben Witherington; you are still working on coloring books. Don't waste my time. Dee Dee posted her answer before. If she'll bring it up here again (as she has said she will) I will comment; what I recall of it, I agreed with it, but it has been some time. In the meantime do not take the time needed for searching for it as latent victory. And if you have answers to what *I* wrote just above, haul 'em out. I have spent a lot of time trying to keep people like you from turning Christianity into a faith of mush-mouths and misguided sheep who baaaaaa at every turn from a preacher whose degree is in counseling and whose idea of a "great Christian scholar" is Warren Wiersbe.

Sir Tinpants of Futurama:

LOL!!! Never have I read more gobbledegook and obfuscation in my life!!!

Ah. A Farrell Till answer. Good show. Was that for me, Dee Dee, or both of us?

Since you have reduced all or at very least MOST of Revelation to "apocalyptic language" how could you convince a futurist that the following verse is NOT "apocalyptic language"?

May I answer?

Do you see a beast with horns in that verse?

Do you see an image of some kind -- a word picture?

I don't. Sir Tinpants, get some lessons in genre study, if you please. :rolleyes: It might help to read some genuine apoc lit from that era, like 1 Enoch or something. You'll never get into these people's minds with that Hal Lindsey Hermeneutic.

JP
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Knight,

Good point!While we await the answer of Mr.jpholding to the verses concerning the Lord fighting against the nations that come against Jerusalem,I could say that the following is the meaning of the following verse:

"This generation shall not pass,till ALL these things be fulfilled"(Mt.24:34).

I could say that the preterists have made a very good case that the word "all" does not always man "all".I could say that in this verse that it means "some".

And "some" of the prophesised events did take place,such as the "famines,and pestilences,and earthquakes"(Mt.24:7).

Therefore,that generation did live to see some of those things,but they did not remain alive to see all the rest of them come to pass.

I could use this method in order to pervert the Scriptures,but I have too much respect for them than to treat them in such a dishonorable manner.

In the meantime,I await the answer from Mr.jpholding.I hope that I do not have to wait as long for his response as we have been kept waiting for the responses from others.

In His grace,--Jerry
 

Nathon Detroit

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Originally posted by jpholding
Sir Tinpants of Futurama:

LOL!!! Never have I read more gobbledegook and obfuscation in my life!!!

Ah. A Farrell Till answer. Good show. Was that for me, Dee Dee, or both of us?

Since you have reduced all or at very least MOST of Revelation to "apocalyptic language" how could you convince a futurist that the following verse is NOT "apocalyptic language"?

May I answer?
Only if its a good answer....

JP's answer...
Do you see a beast with horns in that verse?

Do you see an image of some kind -- a word picture?
Bzzzzzz.... I said you could answer if it was a GOOD answer!!!

Hey JP I don't see any word pictures in the following verse...
"By these three plagues a third of mankind was killed "
Yet according to you preterists that was only "apocalyptic language!"

Preterists: the ultimate form of wanting to have their cake and eat it too!

So let's review....

The preterists say the verse "By these three plagues a third of mankind was killed" is only "apocalyptic language"...

But then say....
Assuredly, I say to you, this generation will by no means pass away till all these things take place. - Matthew 24:34
IS NOT "apocalyptic language because it doesn't contain a reference to a beast!
 

jpholding

Dispeller of Fantasies
Banned
Mixing and matching, evading and obfuscating

Mixing and matching, evading and obfuscating

Sir Tinpants, your can opener called.

Hey JP I don't see any word pictures in the following verse...

That's it, evade your lack of knowledge of docs like 1 Enoch, then switch topics...

"By these three plagues a third of mankind was killed Yet according to you preterists that was only "apocalyptic language!"

When did I say that one was? I didn't. I said only that "mankind" is a bogus translation. However, there is a figure of speech as "a third" simply means a portion -- not that you would have any problem with that either.

Preterists: the ultimate form of wanting to have their cake and eat it too!

I see you like the taste of sour grape. :D

IS NOT "apocalyptic language because it doesn't contain a reference to a beast!

Gee, now he sounds like Evangelion...beasties are a charcateristic image of such lit; I used it as an example. Typical fundaliteralist/dispy exegesis. Try again and maybe this time come back educated in first century Jewish apocalyptic lit. Easy now, the Qumran scrolls won't bite...

Gnawing on your aluminum visor and finding it still empty,

JP
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
jpholding,

Are you not aware that "ALL Scripture is given by inspiration of God"(2Tim.3:16)?

You seem to do your very best to disparage any Scripture that does not fit your misguided beliefs.For example,you quote 1Sam.15:8 and Dan.12:1 and say that these words "are ancient 'trash talk'--no more."

Well,I would say that just about summarizes the disrespect that the preterists heap on the Scriptures that are "given by inspiration of God".

And you say that if you remember correctly you agree with Dee Dee´s interpretation of the inspired words of God as recorded at Zechariah 12:9 and 14:2,3.

Here the Lord says that He "will seek to destroy all the nations that come against Jerusalem"(Zech.12:9).

We also see Him doing that very thing:

"For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle...Then shall the Lord go forth,and fight against those nations,as when He fought in the day of battle"(Zech.14:2,3).

And since the plain meaning of these words have no place in the eschatology of Dee Dee and those who follow the same false teaching,she is forced to make them refer to the utter destruction of Jerusalem in 70AD!

I told her that "no one who came against Jerusalem was destroyed",to which she replied:

"Really??Funny,since most of the world thinks that the Roman Empire has long since ceased to exist...Again,if Jerry knew his ancient history well he would be aware that the Romans never prospered as they once did after 70AD and the Empire´s decline can well be placed as beginning at that very point."

So in order that Dee Dee can cling to her false eschatolgy she would make the Lord to fight against the nations that came against Jerusalem in 70AD but fight so poorly that Jerusalem was completely destroyed!

And you say that you agree with her interpretation.You also make it plain that you think that some of the words which are inspired of God is "ancient trash talk" and "no more".

Instead of quoting any Scripture to support Dee Dee´s "fables",you say,"I have read Ben Witherington"!!!

Woop-te-do!!!

Give the man a hand.He has read Ben Witherington.

And he puts so much faith in what that man says that he just ignore the inspired writings that declare that the Lord Jesus will deliver Jerusalem and His people in the moment of their greatest peril:

"And so all Israel will be saved;as it is written,There shall come out of Zion the Deliverer,and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob"(Ro.11:26).

In His grace,--Jerry
 

Nathon Detroit

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
It's funny... when you read this thread from top to bottom you are left with this overwhelming feeling that the preterists believe that the Great Tribulation was not so great.
 

Faramir

New member
Originally posted by Knight

Faramir....
Answer my question....

Since you have reduced all or at very least MOST of Revelation to "apocalyptic language" how could you convince a futurist that the following verse is NOT "apocalyptic language"?

Assuredly, I say to you, this generation will by no means pass away till all these things take place. - Matthew 24:34

I would point out to the futurist that this verse is in Matthew not Revelation, and I would use small words and talk slowly so he would understand. ;)

Seriosly? I thought I did. :confused: My post in this tread dated 01-22-2003 02:18 PM was an attempt to answer your question. Did you read it? If yes, then why do you ask me to answer you question again?

Does any one else see a pattern here?

Dispensationalist: Hey preterist answer this question.

Preterist: Here is the answer.

Dispensationalist: Hey preterist, why don't you answer my question?

Preterist: Here is my answer yet again

ad infinitum

I will answer this question one more time in summary form. For a more detailed answer see my post of 01-22-2003 02:18 PM :

A lot of his prophecies are in symbolic "apocalyptic language". Even some dispensationalists admit that the "beasts" in Daniel are symbolic of governments, not literal beast. However Daniel's time reference (the 70 weeks) is dead on the money literal. And with the exception of the last two or three weeks most preterist and dispensationalist agree as to when those weeks took place.

Just so you understand apocalyptic language:

Freaky Beast = Symbolic
Astronomical Catastrophe = Symbolic
Superlative Language = Hyperbole
Time references = Literal

If you don't like the answer, fine. Tell me why you disagree, but don't accuse me of not answering. Ddon't just ignore it and hope it will go away. I answered your question, how about you answering a few of mine.

1. Is my post of 01-22-2003 02:18 PM an answer to your question? If not why not? (Hint the answer is yes as it is my post and answering your question was my intent)

2. Do you agree with my post? (I think no is a safe answer)

3. Can you address the issues I raised in my post of 01-22-2003 02:18 PM and tell me why that post represents a faulty method of interpretation? In other words tell me why my answer is not really an answer. :p

I gave you three questions (gave you the answer to two). Lets see if you can practice what you preach and answer my question. Or do you need me to answer your question yet again.

:rolleyes:

In all seriosness, I look forward to your answer.
 
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D

Dee Dee Warren

Guest
Hey Faramir:

Does any one else see a pattern here?

Dispensationalist: Hey preterist answer this question.

Preterist: Here is the answer.

Dispensationalist: Hey preterist, why don't you answer my question?

Preterist: Here is my answer yet again

Oh no you forgot a step. Let me revise the usual scenario u (not meant to represent every dispensationalist or futurist of course)....

Dispensationalist: Hey preterist answer this question.

Preterist: Here is the answer.

Dispensationalist: But what about these ten other questions that will take up every waking of your day to answer so I can throw ten more at you without ever really dealing with the ones you have already answered. Oh, I see, you won't answer now. Chicken!!

Dispensationalist: Hey preterist, why don't you answer my first question?

Preterist: Here is my answer yet again

:D
 
D

Dee Dee Warren

Guest
Dear JP:

And what makes you think I don't? Jerry, I have seen you argue. I read Ben Witherington; you are still working on coloring books. Don't waste my time. Dee Dee posted her answer before. If she'll bring it up here again (as she has said she will) I will comment; what I recall of it, I agreed with it, but it has been some time. In the meantime do not take the time needed for searching for it as latent victory.

Yes I have answered that question multiple times, but it is not the one that was going to take some searching or writing again from scratch that I alluded to before. And so that you have it handy I will repost it here, but first I need to add some things to it to correct Jerry's poor reading comprehension of the answer the first, second, third, and fourth times since he keeps misrepresenting what my answer meant. But strawman are so easy to knock down.
 

Faramir

New member
Originally posted by Dee Dee Warren
Hey Faramir:



Oh no you forgot a step. Let me revise the usual scenario u (not meant to represent every dispensationalist or futurist of course)....

Dispensationalist: Hey preterist answer this question.

Preterist: Here is the answer.

Dispensationalist: But what about these ten other questions that will take up every waking of your day to answer so I can throw ten more at you without ever really dealing with the ones you have already answered. Oh, I see, you won't answer now. Chicken!!

Dispensationalist: Hey preterist, why don't you answer my first question?

Preterist: Here is my answer yet again

:D

:doh: I missed that one. LOL
 

Nathon Detroit

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Originally posted by Faramir
A lot of his prophecies are in symbolic "apocalyptic language". Even some dispensationalists admit that the "beasts" in Daniel are symbolic of governments, not literal beast.
Maybe, maybe not.... but are the ACTIONS of the beast literal or NOT literal?
"And he (the beast) exerciseth all the power of the first beast before him,and caused the earth and them who dwelleth on it to worship the first beast,whose deadly wound was healed.And he doeth great wonders,so that he maketh fire come down from heaven on the earth in the sight of men.And deceiveth them that dwell on earth by the means of those miracles...and he causeth all,both small and great,rich and poor,free and enslaved,to receive a mark on their right hand,or in their foreheads,and that no man might buy or sell,except he that had the mark,or the name of the beast,or the number of his name"
Does any of that verse have any real meaning whatsoever? Does "apocalyptic language" turn the verse into to something other than what it says? If the "Beast" does represent the government wouldn't the rest of the verse still have some practical meaning?

In practical preterist terms (I realize thats an oxymoron) what does the above verse mean??? Please interpret for me in "apocalyptic language" of course.


You continue....
However Daniel's time reference (the 70 weeks) is dead on the money literal. And with the exception of the last two or three weeks most preterist and dispensationalist agree as to when those weeks took place.
You do realize that the destruction of Jerusalem in 70AD CANNOT fall within Daniel's 70 prophecy in the preterist timeline don't you?

Isn't that right Dee Dee? (a simple "yes thats right Knight" will suffice)

According to Dee Dee the end of the 70 weeks is at Paul's conversion.
 
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Faramir

New member
Dee Dee You were right (yet again)

Dee Dee You were right (yet again)

Dee Dee Said:

Dispensationalist: Hey preterist answer this question.

Preterist: Here is the answer.

Dispensationalist: But what about these ten other questions that will take up every waking of your day to answer so I can throw ten more at you without ever really dealing with the ones you have already answered. Oh, I see, you won't answer now. Chicken!!

Then Knight Said:

Does any of that verse have any real meaning whatsoever? Does "apocalyptic language" turn the verse into to something other than what it says? If the "Beast" does represent the government wouldn't the rest of the verse still have some practical meaning?

In practical preterist terms (I realize thats an oxymoron) what does the above verse mean??? Please interpret for me in "apocalyptic language" of course.
 

Faramir

New member
Knight unlike you, I am not afraid to answer questions that are asked of me. However, I have a meeting to go to and from there church until late tonight. It will probably be tomorrow before I can respond.
 

Nathon Detroit

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Faramir, I sense you are mocking me. However, my question is directly related to the first question I asked.

Furthermore.... ONE QUESTION MANY TIMES LEADS TO ANOTHER, whats wrong with that? Answers usually generate further questions.
 

Nathon Detroit

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Now while you are at your meeting you can ponder the following from my previous post....

You do realize that the destruction of Jerusalem in 70AD CANNOT fall within Daniel's 70 prophecy in the preterist timeline don't you?

Isn't that right Dee Dee? (a simple "yes that's right Knight" will suffice)

According to Dee Dee the end of the 70 weeks is at Paul's conversion.
 
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Dee Dee Warren

Guest
Dear Knight and Faramir:

You do realize that the destruction of Jerusalem in 70AD CANNOT fall within Daniel's 70 prophecy in the preterist timeline don't you?

Isn't that right Dee Dee? (a simple "yes thats right Knight" will suffice)

According to Dee Dee the end of the 70 weeks is at Paul's conversion.

Yes that rights Knight... but, why in the world did you make this statement to begin with. Faramir already knew and acknowledged that by stating:

However Daniel's time reference (the 70 weeks) is dead on the money literal. And with the exception of the last two or three weeks most preterist and dispensationalist agree as to when those weeks took place.

So while you are absolutely right in your statement concerning my position, it is also absolutely irrelevant to Faramir's point. And for the record, though a clarification is in order to your point. You have represented me totally correctly and I thank you for that. But just as their are differences on some details within futurism, there are differences in details amongst preterists. Smilax for instance does not agree with me on that issue, so I will not say it CANNOT be a certain way in a preterist timeline.
 
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