6 Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel:
According to this verse, is paul recognizing Two distinct Israel's ? If yes, what is the difference of the Two ?
If no, then why did He use those words like that ?
Dummy, the Body of Christ is for all the world. That is seperate from Jacob's (Israel) earthly inheritance.
Not. Now you go answer Ezekiel. Do you think God showed him that in error?
When the fulness of the gentiles has come in, it will be no longer time for any to be grafted into the olive tree, at that time [ the end] all Israel shall be saved [ Not National Israel] but all Israel, the Israel of God, all them chosen in the True servant Israel, Jesus christ [ isa 49 ], this is clearly stated rom 11:26.
The whole concoction of a future restoration of National Israel is premised on mere speculation and spiritual blindness to the truth; for If God did make such a promise, then the promise would be unconditional,
and if so, then how and why did He cut her off as branches from the covenant olive tree because of their unbelief ?
But yet the false teaching of today's dispensationalist says just that, that Israel [ the nation] has been rejected only temporarily due to unbelief !
They are not all his that claim they are. This isn't hard.
Thats not what it says..
Now as we continue the Romans 9 study, we see that Paul in explaining what seems to be a perplexity as to why the Jews are being excluded , most of them, as individuals of that nation. He explains that not all Jews from that nation are truly Jews