ECT 3 Questions for my MAD and YEC friends

6days

New member
I showed you exactly what is meant by 'the gift of the Holy Spirit" and that is the gift mentioned here in bold:

"Now there are diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit...For to one is given by the Spirit the word of wisdom; to another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit; To another faith by the same Spirit; to another the gifts of healing by the same Spirit; To another the working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues" (1 Cor.12:4,8-10).​

Those who were baptized with water certainly did receive the gift bestowed by the Holy Spirit:

"Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit" (Acts 2:38).​

Yes... believers recieve the gift of the Holy Spirit. Your verses do not say they will speak in tongues
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Yes... believers recieve the gift of the Holy Spirit. Your verses do not say they will speak in tongues

I never said that today anyone is given the power to speak in tongues. Instead, my point is that those who were baptized with water on the day of Pentecost received the "gift of the Holy Spirit," and that gift bestowed by the Holy Spirit was the ability to speak in tongues.

Today there is only one baptism:

"There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; One Lord, one faith, one baptism, One God and Father of all" (Eph.4:4-6).​

Here is the only baptism for this time:

"For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit" (1 Cor.12:13).​
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
There wouldn't be a real episode of tongues unless there were members of Judaism who needed to see that the Gospel is God's mission. There are messianics who need to see that today, and I do wonder if there might be some renewed sign episodes to them to see the same thing. They see or witness this happening; it is not that the message is for them.
 

patman

Active member
Did physical death exist before Adam sinned?

After Adam sinned, God pronounced a curse upon His creation. Part of that curse was death to humans and vertebrates (nepesh chayyah 'living creatures')

But Hugh Ross and other theistic evolutionists seem to think that physical death already existed before sin.*
The following comment from another thread, a TOL member reasons..."The "death" God spoke of was not a physical death. He tells Adam that he will die the day he eats from the tree, but Adam does so, and lives on physically for many years after. If God is always truthful, the death that the Fall brought to us, was not physical."
However..... If you believe physical death was part of God's "very good" creation (Gen.1:31), then I would argue the Gospel is compromised, if not destroyed. Or...is there merit in the above comment from a TOL member?*

I will start with reasons why physical death was part of the curse... and why the comment from a TOLer is unbiblical.
1. Genesis 2:17 in the KJV reads*"But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die"

Well... Adam did eat of the tree, and he did not physical die that day. So is the verse only referring to spiritual death / separation from God? No... The Hebrew actually suggests a dying process. A more literal translation would be "dying you shall die" or less literally "for as soon as you eat of it, you shall be doomed to die".http://www.accuracyingenesis.com/die.html

A few examples from other translations...
Young's Literal Translation
and of the tree of knowledge of good and evil, thou dost not eat of it, for in the day of thine eating of it -- dying thou dost die.'

New International Version
but you must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, for when you eat from it you will certainly die."
New Living Translation
except the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. If you eat its fruit, you are sure to die."

2. The Bible attributes physical death to sin...specifically referring to Adam. And here is the Gospel....
1Cor. 15: 21 "For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man. For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive"Also see Rom. 5:12-19

3. The Bible refers to death as evil... it is the enemy.
1 Cor. 15:26 "The last enemy to be destroyed is death."
So... if physical death is evil... its hard to rationalize that with*Genesis 1:31 where God calls His creation " very good". Obviously physical death did not exist until sin entered the world.

(Sad side note... The story of Charles Templeton...amazing evangelist...but he compromised on the matter death before sin, and he eventually turned away from God)

4. If physical death already existed before sin... then why did Christ need to physically die and be resurrected? If the curse in Genesis 2 was only a spiritual death to Adam, then Christ only need to rise, or defeat, spiritual death. Clearly, in*1 Cor. 15:26, physical death was part of the curse which Christ conquers.

5. To imagine that Genesis 2:17*is not referring to physical death, is refuted in Genesis 3:19*(Using KJV again) "In the sweat of thy face shalt thou eat bread, till thou return unto the ground; for out of it wast thou taken: for dust thou art, and unto dust shalt thou return."

Physical death ...returning to dust, IS part of the curse. It is something that Christ has defeated and we can join Him in the resurrection. "He will wipe every tear from their eyes. There will be no more death' or mourning or crying or pain, for the old order of things has passed away." Rev. 21:4

Re animals. ....Imagine watching a nature show where lions are chasing a baby elephant. The mother tries in vain to protect her young. As the lions sink their teeth into the still live Baby, the mother watches helplessly, whole hearing her baby cry. Who doesn't feel that tug at our heart strings? We were created in the image of God, and I can't imagine our Creator calling that scene "very good". Doesn't scripture paint paradise as the lion laying with the lamb?

Evolutionism and old earth beliefs compromise the Gospel making Christ's physical death needless. ÌE. Jesus wouldn't have needed to physically die...and conquer the grave if death was part of God's "very good" creation.

Thank you for the "meaty" reply. There are a lot of really good points in it.

As good as the points are, I am still not 100% convinced that death was not a part of creation. If you think about the number of bugs that would overtake the world, and how even though we might swat at a bug it would not die...

Of course, as you mentioned, many say that death only applies to certain kinds of creatures, so higher forms of life were the only that would not die. Then we can see a world overtaken by mammals that reproduce in large numbers.

I agree with your assessment about Adam and death for humans, but animals...? The numbers and where we draw the line on what counts as an eternal living entity is fuzzy and not well defined by scripture.

If smashing a bug is ok pre-fall, would a snake swallowing a mouse be less of a problem? Would the bug live forever and not be crushed, and the mouse come out of the snake walk out of the snakes digestive system, emerging only grossed out?

I have no doubts that the dynamics of life and death were very different, but with out a specific verse saying "no animals ever died," I am not comfortable with teaching others this aspect of creationism as biblical truth. I can get behind Human's being eternal, and death meaning physical and spiritual as you show with your passages, but that is all I can say is obvious from the passages.

To convince me, I will need something very specific about animals and their being created as eternal beings.

Here is something to consider... God did not mention every single type of animal on the ark, but we know that every type was represented. The account goes on to list very special animals that the Jews would connect with. It makes the narrative more identifiable for those people. Does it mean the animals not mentioned, or even excluded, were not on the ark? No, it just means it wasn't mentioned. If this logic, that exclusion does not mean actually excluded, then it is possible that God's gift of vegetation does not specifically exclude meat. It's possible there is a theological message here instead of scientific one.

That is why I need a verse that clearly defines the diets of pre-fall animals as expressly vegetarian. God could have just not mentioned the full diets; and, when we consider how crowded the world would be if every mouse and every bird ever born would never die, it makes since to think that animals could be eating other animals at some point had the fall never happened.

I don't think this is an evolutionary view of scripture. It's just math, at least from my understanding of this.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Patman, I asked you:

Do you believe like those in the Neo-MAD camp that the Jews who lived under the Law could not be saved apart from works?

Evidently you do because you said the following about those who lived under the law:

With these passages in mind, it sounds as though anyone under the law needed to keep it, and repent when they did not, to maintain or find salvation.

You do not understand the meaning of the verses which you cited. After all, we read the following about "whosoever" believes:

"For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life" (Jn.3:16).​

According to this anyone who believes has salvation. But your idea contradict this because according to you the Jews who lived under the law could not be saved apart from works. Besides that, Paul says that those who lived under the law are saved by grace through faith:

"Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham" (Ro.4:16).​

Of course if it is of works then it cannot be said that it is of grace (Ro.4:4).

Again the Scriptures contradict your idea that the Jews who lived under the law could not be saved apart from works.

Now please address these two verses which I quoted. Next, I will address this verse which you quoted:

KJV Acts 2:38
38) Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

First of all, before anyone could be baptized with water they had to first believe (Acts 8:36-37). By the time a person believed he was already saved (Jn.3:16).

Those who had already believed had already had their sins forgiven for salvation (Acts 10:43). The forgiveness of sins which come as a result of being baptized with water is in regard to " fellowship" and not salvation. In the Journal of the Grace Evangelical Society David R. Anderson writes:

"We are suggesting that John the Baptist, Jesus, and Peter had dual ministries. One was to call the nation of Israel back into fellowship with Yahweh. The covenant relationship had long since been established. The nation of Israel did not need a new relationship with God. But they were sorely lacking in fellowship...John the Baptist, Jesus, and Peter were all trying to persuade Israel to repentance and turning that would bring them back to a refreshing fellowship with God...Now as a nation they needed to repent and turn (Acts 3:19) in order to have fellowship with God" [emphasis added] (Anderson, "The National Repentance of Israel," Journal of the Grace Evangelical Society, Autumn 1998, Volume 11:21).​

The gift of the Holy Spirit spoken of at Acts 2:38 is a gift bestowed by the Holy Spirit. The "gift" spoken of in that verse is the ability to speak in tongues:

"...no one can say, 'Jesus is Lord,' except by the Holy Spirit. There are different kinds of gifts, but the same Spirit distributes them. To one there is given through the Spirit a message of wisdom, to another a message of knowledge by means of the same Spirit, to another faith by the same Spirit, to another gifts of healing by that one Spirit, to another miraculous powers, to another prophecy, to another distinguishing between spirits, to another speaking in different kinds of tongues, and to still another the interpretation of tongues. All these are the work of one and the same Spirit, and he distributes them to each one, just as he determines" (1 Cor.12:3-4, 8-11).​

Those who submitted to the rite of water baptism on the day of Pentecost received a gift bestowed by the Holy Spirit--the ability to speak in tongues.

So we can see that those who were baptized with water were saved before a drop of water even touched them. Now I await your interpretation of the meaning of John 3:16 and Romans 4:16.
 

DAN P

Well-known member
Sorry NickM,
I don't see anything on page 1 about the grammar of Gal 2 and how it supports 2 messages. it does not. The Gospel Gal 2 refers to is one, is referred to singular, and follows a chapter where there is an "anathema" pronounced on any other Gospel.



Hi and I know that any KJV-only bible believers will never see the Greek grammar in Gal 2:7 where the Greek Article " THE " is used !!

In vwese 7 it reads " THE GOSPEL of the UN- CIRCUMCISION " a Gospel of the Grace of God !!

The next words are " THE CIRCUMCISION " or what Peter preached !

Anyone can check the Greek text and find the ARTICLE and also check Strong's concordance where it let's all know where the word " THE " is used in each verse , it is easy !!

When the Greek article is used it points to a SPECIFIC THING as in Gal 2:7 !!

dan p
 

6days

New member
Patman said:
If you think about the number of bugs that would overtake the world, and how even though we might swat at a bug it would not die...
We don't know precisely how things worked in the garden of Eden but I don't think bugs would be considered 'nepesh'- living breathing creatures.

Strongs says "The*נפשׁ*becomes a living being: by God's breathing*נשׁמת חיים*into the nostrils of its*בשׂר; of man*Genesis 2:7; by implication of animals alsoGenesis 2:19"*

Patman said:
Of course, as you mentioned, many say that death only applies to certain kinds of creatures, so higher forms of life were the only that would not die. Then we can see a world overtaken by mammals that reproduce in large numbers.
The same could be said for humans if there was no death. God commanded "fill the earth". We don't know how that would have looked if sin had not entered the world.
Patman said:
That is why I need a verse that clearly defines the diets of pre-fall animals as expressly vegetarian. God could have just not mentioned the full diets...
Possible God just didn't mention that meat was ok, sure.*
But, consider the wording .....

Prefall
Gen. 1:29,30 "Then God said, "I give you every seed-bearing plant on the face of the whole earth and every tree that has fruit with seed in it. They will be yours for food.*And to every beast of the earth, and to every fowl of the air, and to every thing that creepeth upon the earth, wherein there is life, I have given every green herb for meat: and it was so."

Postfall / post-Flood
Genesis 9:3 "Everything that lives and moves about will be food for you. Just as I gave you the green plants, I now give you everything."

Appreciated your thoughtful reply Patman
 

turbosixx

New member
Today there is only one baptism:

"There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; One Lord, one faith, one baptism, One God and Father of all" (Eph.4:4-6).​

Here is the only baptism for this time:

"For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit" (1 Cor.12:13).​

What was the purpose of water baptism and why has it been done away with?
 

Danoh

New member
What was the purpose of water baptism and why has it been done away with?

Neither of those two passages he quoted tells you what that baptism is.

One passage relates that there is one baptism. The other passage relates only Who its agent is, and who its participants are.

But neither passage relates either what that baptism is, nor why the one supposedly suffices, if indeed it alone does.

This kind of thing happens when people read into passages either what they learned about a passage from other passages, or when they read their own notions into a passage, or when they have learned said assertions from some external source.

Whether they are right or wrong, they end up at a combination of taking what they are asserting as a given - as if "speaking to the choir" - and or get so caught up in attempting to prove another wrong, that they jump the gun and assert things a passage is not asserting.

Not saying yea or nay, lol, only what the passages relate, as well as what they do not.
 

Nick M

Black Rifles Matter
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
What was the purpose of water baptism and why has it been done away with?

Exodus 30

17 Then the Lord spoke to Moses, saying: 18 “You shall also make a laver of bronze, with its base also of bronze, for washing. You shall put it between the tabernacle of meeting and the altar. And you shall put water in it, 19 for Aaron and his sons shall wash their hands and their feet in water from it. 20 When they go into the tabernacle of meeting, or when they come near the altar to minister, to burn an offering made by fire to the Lord, they shall wash with water, lest they die. 21 So they shall wash their hands and their feet, lest they die. And it shall be a statute forever to them—to him and his descendants throughout their generations.”


You must be clean to be before God. Saints in Christ are already clean. Therefore, we do not wash.
 

turbosixx

New member
Neither of those two passages he quoted tells you what that baptism is.

One passage relates that there is one baptism. The other passage relates only Who its agent is, and who its participants are.

But neither passage relates either what that baptism is, nor why the one supposedly suffices, if indeed it alone does.

This kind of thing happens when people read into passages either what they learned about a passage from other passages, or when they read their own notions into a passage, or when they have learned said assertions from some external source.

Whether they are right or wrong, they end up at a combination of taking what they are asserting as a given - as if "speaking to the choir" - and or get so caught up in attempting to prove another wrong, that they jump the gun and assert things a passage is not asserting.

Not saying yea or nay, lol, only what the passages relate, as well as what they do not.

That's usually what I get when I ask about baptism. Everything but passages that tell us about baptism.
 

turbosixx

New member
1 Corinthians 12:13-14 KJV -

Acts 2:38 Peter said to them, "Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit......41 So then, those who had received his word were baptized; and that day there were added about three thousand souls.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
I'm not even sure there that Peter meant that those who believed would also start being heard in languages other than their own, but he certainly meant the outpouring of the Spirit in the sense prophesied by so many passages in the major prophets. And of course Joel 2.
 

turbosixx

New member
I'm not even sure there that Peter meant that those who believed would also start being heard in languages other than their own, but he certainly meant the outpouring of the Spirit in the sense prophesied by so many passages in the major prophets. And of course Joel 2.

From what I've read and understand, only twice in the NT has the Spirit been poured out (baptism with the HS) directly from God. Other than those two instances this is how they received gifts.

Acts 8:14 Now when the apostles in Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent them Peter and John, 15who came down and prayed for them that they might receive the Holy Spirit. 16 For He had not yet fallen upon any of them; they had simply been baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. 17 Then they began laying their hands on them, and they were receiving the Holy Spirit. 18 Now when Simon saw that the Spirit was bestowed through the laying on of the apostles' hands, he offered them money

Correct me if I'm wrong.
 
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