2 Cor 4.4 (Jesus, The God of this age!)

[Apple7]

Which passage do you mean? In the passage, "because that darkness hath blinded his eyes", the subject is "darkness", and the predicate is "hath blinded his eyes". In the passage, "My little children, these things I write unto you", the subject is "I", the predicate is "I write these things unto you", the direct object is "these things", the indirect object is "you". In the passage, 1 John 2:1-12, there are many subjects, and many predicates, and so on; farbeit from me to sit here and diagram all of them for you. I've given a few of them for you, already; perhaps you could enroll in an ESL course, or hire a tutor, if you need help understanding how to distinguish subjects, predicates, and other parts of speech. I'll give you a free lesson, though, right here, right now: the subject of a passage need not even be a who. So, in the passage, 1 John 2:1-12, just tell me, if you can, which predicate you are asking about, and I will be happy to tell you the subject that goes with it.

The Greek manuscripts were a continuous flow of characters, without punctuation.

You would not know this because you abhor the original languages, and you make every excuse imaginable to keep from studying them.

Thus, scripture was read in CONTEXT to the whole, and not parsed-down to the verse level.



So, again...

Who is the subject of 1 John 2?

Your god, Satan?

or...

Your God, Jesus?


Please stop defending Satan, and reply...

 

[7djengo7]

Scripture.

Rev 1.4 - 6

John to the seven assemblies in Asia: Grace to you, and peace, from the One who is, and who was, and who is coming, and from the seven spirits which are before His throne; even from Jesus Christ the Faithful Witness, the First-born out of the dead, and the Ruler of the kings of the earth. To Him loving us and washing us from our sins by His blood, and made us a kingdom and priests to God, even His Father. To Him is the glory and the might forever and ever. Amen.

This Triune greeting to Rev, mentions Father, Son and Holy Spirit, but specifically gives notice to The Son as being the ruler of this world.

OK. I get it. The question I asked you was about Paul's phrase, "the god of this world". You refuse to answer it. I'm not going to just keep asking you the same question, over and over. You don't want to answer it, then don't. Fine. What's that to me?

I asked you "What about Paul's phrase ...?" and, in response to that, you type "Scripture.", and then throw another red herring at me. Um, OK. Paul's phrase, "the god of this world", is Scripture (if you hadn't noticed). It's not ALL of Scripture, of course. But it's the part of Scripture that I asked you about; I didn't ask you about the part of Scripture that is John's Apocalypse.

 

[Apple7]

OK. I get it. The question I asked you was about Paul's phrase, "the god of this world". You refuse to answer it. I'm not going to just keep asking you the same question, over and over. You don't want to answer it, then don't. Fine. What's that to me?

I asked you "What about Paul's phrase ...?" and, in response to that, you type "Scripture.", and then throw another red herring at me. Um, OK. Paul's phrase, "the god of this world", is Scripture (if you hadn't noticed). It's not ALL of Scripture, of course. But it's the part of Scripture that I asked you about; I didn't ask you about the part of Scripture that is John's Apocalypse.

When did John's writings become irrelevant to Paul's?

 

[7djengo7]

The Greek manuscripts were a continuous flow of characters, without punctuation.

I actually did know that, even before you told it to me, believe it or not. Actually, now that you have told me that it is so, I'm almost starting to wonder whether I should maybe reconsider whether it is really so....

The Greek manuscripts were a continuous flow of characters, without punctuation.

So what? What does that have to do with your claim about Paul's phrase, "the god of this world"? Why, absolutely nothing. Although, an interesting question comes to mind, here: How, exactly, can YOU tell, from the oldest manuscript containing all of 2 Corinthians 4:4, that the word 'god', in Paul's phrase, "the god of this world", is supposed to be capitalized, as you are in the habit of so sanctimoniously capitalizing it ("the God of this world")? Also, without punctuation in the oldest manuscript, how can you be sure that Paul, when he wrote the word 'god' in "the god of this world", did not mean it in the way we moderns would mean it, were we to write "the "god" of this world"?

You would not know this because you abhor the original languages, and you make every excuse imaginable to keep from studying them.

Got your claws digging into that keyboard all tense, eh?

Thus, scripture was read in CONTEXT to the whole, and not parsed-down to the verse level.

Oh,I know! Language has altered so much since those days; why, back then, they didn't have subjects, predicates, and the other parts of speech we take for granted, nowadays, did they?

To what level would you say Scripture was (if at all) "parsed-down" when, in those days, it was "read in CONTEXT to the whole"? To the clause level? The single sentence level? The two-sentence level? The three-sentence level? To the n-sentence level? How many sentences, exactly, would you say constitutes what you call "CONTEXT"? What's the minimum number? What's the maximum number (if there is a maximum)?

So, again...

Who is the subject of 1 John 2?

You're asking the wrong guy; I don't follow baseball, so I don't even know whether he ever made it past first. Do you?

So, again...

I can't read your mind. I don't know to which subject you are referring. Again, there are many subjects in 1 John 2. You tell me which predicate goes with the subject you are asking about, and I'll be more than happy to tell you which subject you are asking about.

Your god, Satan?

or...

Your God, Jesus?

Again, since you believe that to call Satan "god" (lower case 'g') is to worship Satan, why do you exempt yourself from the charge of being a Satan worshiper, even though you repeatedly call Satan "god" (lower case 'g'), like you did, again, just now?

Please stop defending Satan, and reply...

Please stop hypocritically calling Satan "god", while condemning others for calling Satan "the god of this world".

 

[7djengo7]

When did John's writings become irrelevant to Paul's?

I give up: When?

When did the fact that Ruth was a Moabitess become irrelevant to John's writings?

When did the red herrings you throw at me become answers to the questions I asked you? The answer is, of course, "Never." You have consistently stonewalled against answering the questions I asked you, which, of course, is quite a-OK by me.

 

[Apple7]

So what? What does that have to do with your claim about Paul's phrase, "the god of this world"? Why, absolutely nothing. Although, an interesting question comes to mind, here: How, exactly, can YOU tell, from the oldest manuscript containing all of 2 Corinthians 4:4, that the word 'god', in Paul's phrase, "the god of this world", is supposed to be capitalized, as you are in the habit of so sanctimoniously capitalizing it ("the God of this world")? Also, without punctuation in the oldest manuscript, how can you be sure that Paul, when he wrote the word 'god' in "the god of this world", did not mean it in the way we moderns would mean it, were we to write "the "god" of this world"?

What about the Greek makes you think that it should be lower case?

 

[7djengo7]

Your god, Satan?

or...

Your God, Jesus?


Please stop defending Satan, and reply...

If calling Satan "god" (little 'g') is defending Satan, and you don't like defending Satan, then you should stop calling Satan "god", as you are doing.

 

[Apple7]

Again, since you believe that to call Satan "god" (lower case 'g') is to worship Satan, why do you exempt yourself from the charge of being a Satan worshiper, even though you repeatedly call Satan "god" (lower case 'g'), like you did, again, just now?



Please stop hypocritically calling Satan "god", while condemning others for calling Satan "the god of this world".

You still persist in pinning ο θεος upon Satan.

You steal from Jesus, and then defend Satan.

 

[7djengo7]

You still persist in pinning ο θεος upon Satan.

So do you:

Your god, Satan?

or...

Your God, Jesus?

Here, in saying "Your god, Satan", you are saying that Satan is a god. Obviously, you are not saying that Satan is God the Father, or God the Son, or God the Spirit. But, you're saying that Satan is a god. Hey Professor, why don't you just try translating "Your god, Satan" into New Testament Greek? Go ahead and show us exactly how you would translate it from English into Greek.

Besides, all Trinitarians do. Remember, so far, you're the first person in history to claim that Paul referred to Jesus, rather than to Satan, as "the god of this world". You're saying, for instance, that John Calvin stole from Jesus and defended Satan. No wonder you don't like to advertise, in so many words, that you are a Calvinist.

 

[Apple7]

Besides, all Trinitarians do. Remember, so far, you're the first person in history to claim that Paul referred to Jesus, rather than to Satan, as "the god of this world". You're saying, for instance, that John Calvin stole from Jesus and defended Satan. No wonder you don't like to advertise, in so many words, that you are a Calvinist.

God does the 'blinding'.....NOT Satan...

John 12.35 - 41

Then Jesus said to them, Yet a little while the Light is with you. Walk while you have the Light, that darkness not overtake you. And the one walking in the darkness does not know where he is going. While you have the Light, believe into the Light, that you may become sons of Light. Jesus spoke these things, and going away He was hidden from them. But though He had done so many miraculous signs before them, they did not believe into Him, so that the Word of Isaiah the prophet might be fulfilled, which he said, "Lord, who has believed our report? And the arm of the Lord, to whom was it revealed?" (Isa. 53:1) Because of this they could not believe, because Isaiah said again, "He has blinded their eyes" and "has hardened their heart," "that they might not see with the eyes" and "understand with the heart," "and be converted," "and I should heal them." (Isa. 6:10) Isaiah said these things when he saw His glory, and spoke about Him.



Study up...

:cigar:

 

[7djengo7]

God does the 'blinding'.....NOT Satan...

God doesn't do the blinding spoken of by Paul, in 2 Corinthians 4, nor the blinding spoken of in 1 John 2.

 

[way 2 go]

How, exactly, can YOU tell, from the oldest manuscript containing all of 2 Corinthians 4:4, that the word 'god', in Paul's phrase, "the god of this world", is supposed to be capitalized,

opcorn:

so simple apple7 filters everything through his also unproven
filter of"satan was bound at the cross"
and winds up with all kinds of strange there-fore's

by using this filter it is satan in Mat_4:1 but
"satan was bound at the cross" therefore is not satan 1Pe_5:8 which is wrong
but apple7 does not let facts get in the way of his storytelling

Mat 4:1 Then Jesus was led up by the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted by the devil.

1Pe 5:8 Be sober-minded; be watchful. Your adversary the devil prowls around like a roaring lion, seeking someone to devour.

 

[7djengo7]

You still persist in pinning ο θεος upon Satan.

Your god, Satan?

or...

Your God, Jesus?

Since you say, here, that Satan is a god, YOU try translating your phrase "Your god, Satan" from English into New Testament Greek. Try to do it without "pinning ο θεος upon Satan". Get to it, Professor Apple7. What is taking you so long?

 

[Apple7]

God doesn't do the blinding spoken of by Paul, in 2 Corinthians 4, nor the blinding spoken of in 1 John 2.

Scripture disagrees with your unreferenced opinion.

 

[Apple7]

opcorn:

so simple apple7 filters everything through his also unproven
filter of"satan was bound at the cross"
and winds up with all kinds of strange there-fore's

by using this filter it is satan in Mat_4:1 but
"satan was bound at the cross" therefore is not satan 1Pe_5:8 which is wrong
but apple7 does not let facts get in the way of his storytelling

Mat 4:1 Then Jesus was led up by the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted by the devil.

1Pe 5:8 Be sober-minded; be watchful. Your adversary the devil prowls around like a roaring lion, seeking someone to devour.

You are yet another one who abhors God's word.

Go back and start studying His word in the languages in which it was first revealed.

 

[7djengo7]

• 1 John 2 records without Jesus’ light, the unbelievers are blinded.

You lie in saying that John, in 1 John 2, states that Jesus blinds people's minds.

Contrary to your lie, John states that DARKNESS blinds people's minds ("eyes"), and NOT that Jesus blinds people's minds. Jesus doesn't blind people's minds.

In Acts 26:18, Jesus, after His ascension, speaking to Saul, calls darkness "the power of Satan", and, in opposition to this, He calls light "God". And, He sends Saul to "open [people's] eyes", to turn them "from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God".

To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me.

Only Satan, or some other Satanically-deceived liar, will deny that the obvious parallelism--between, on the one hand, DARKNESS and THE POWER OF SATAN, and, on the other, LIGHT and GOD--identifies the darkness as the power of Satan, and the light as God.

God is light, and in him is no darkness at all.​

Yet, against this truth, you lie, saying that the "darkness [that] hath blinded [the] eyes [of him] that hateth his brother" is REALLY the power of JESUS, and is NOT the power of SATAN.

 

[7djengo7]

opcorn:

so simple apple7 filters everything through his also unproven
filter of"satan was bound at the cross"
and winds up with all kinds of strange there-fore's

by using this filter it is satan in Mat_4:1 but
"satan was bound at the cross" therefore is not satan 1Pe_5:8 which is wrong
but apple7 does not let facts get in the way of his storytelling

Mat 4:1 Then Jesus was led up by the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted by the devil.

1Pe 5:8 Be sober-minded; be watchful. Your adversary the devil prowls around like a roaring lion, seeking someone to devour.

He claims that the verb "cast" in Revelation 20:3 KJV NECESSITATES that Satan was ALREADY cast into the bottomless pit, nearly 2,000 years ago, BECAUSE it is in aorist tense,

and yet,​

he hypocritically turns around and denies that the same aorist verb "cast" in Revelation 20:10 KJV NECESSITATES that Satan was ALREADY cast into the lake of fire, nearly 2,000 years ago.
​

(Of course, neither of those castings of Satan has yet happened, but Apple7 wants, or needs, the first one to have already happened.)

And then, all he can do is to blow smoke in your face, when you draw attention to his blatant inconsistency, and to his special pleading for it; he just starts pelting you with repetitions of the word "context", which he parrots, meaninglessly, as one of his cherished slogans. Just observe how many strange therefores Apple7 can magically draw out of his one-word slogan.

 

[way 2 go]

You are yet another one who abhors God's word.

Go back and start studying His word in the languages in which it was first revealed.

no substance just ad hominem

I love God's word not your twisting of it tho.

thank you for high lighting your error link

1Th 2:18 says Paul was hindered from returning by satan
& still all you have is conjecture

and you admit link " informs the reader that Satan hindered Paul"

1Th 2:18 Wherefore we would have come unto you, even I Paul, once and again; but Satan hindered us.

 

[Apple7]

You lie .

Rage on....:cigar:

 

[Apple7]

I love God's word not your twisting of it tho.

Go high-five your buddy for not knowing a lick of Greek....


What a proud moment we have here...:cigar: