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Go look it up, I've shared it with you before. No, not a dichotomy that identifies a bodiless soul. Sure it was. But the reference is to "He", not "his body". So the identity follows the body, not the soul. When there's no life, "he" is dead. If the identification is with the soul, then "he"...

The only remaining option is to speak without anyone ever questioning one's doctrine, meaning either "I'm always right," or "everybody's right." Neither of those concepts are aiming at finding truth.

Gen 2 says a soul is made up of an inanimate body animated by a breath from God. If either part is missing, or not functioning, the person is dead. Thus, a soul without a body is, well, nothing. Yes. Him--not just His body. You've given the right scripture. Please show me where it says "His...

Why do you start with the premise that God is omnipresent? Is it a necessary attribute of God? Is it biblically justified? I'm not sure it is.

Right! And you don't find truth by first deciding what you believe, and then reading it into the scriptures.

@Ps82 (and @Bladerunner). It works better, and doesn't take as long, if you reply to the post from the link at the bottom of the post, then hit RETURN key at any point where you want to comment, assuming you are using the formatted editor.

Your response was also very clear and thorough in terms of explanation. But I'm hoping we can work through this using scripture to back up our assertions. I'll respond more later, when I have time.

Blah blah blah

The bible says "He" was buried, not "His body" was buried Why do you say it was a non earthly place? Jesus went to Hades. Hades is sometimes translated as "grave". Graves are the epitome of earthly. People? It doesn't say "people". It says "spirits". It doesn't even say "spirits of", just...

The issue that you're still not willing to address is that you have made your own moral code and are judging God by it. You've decided that the literal reading of the torment passages is impossible because you've defined them as sadistic. And now you're saying God's word, if not reinterpreted...

Here's what you said about the scriptures when you started this thread: In that statement, you admit that the Bible contains statements about eternal torment, but you say it isn't literal. You repeated your assertion in a later post: So you admit that scriptures teach eternal torment, but you...

Yes, that's a definition of "soul" that allows for mortality of the soul, so you've shown my point to be possible. Can you show any passage in the bible that says the opposite--that the soul is immortal?

Can you give us a scripture reference that says the soul is immortal? Here's one that says the opposite: Ezekiel 18:4 KJV — Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die.

But how can one know anything in Hades/Sheol? Ecclesiastes 9:10 KJV — Whatsoever thy hand findeth to do, do it with thy might; for there is no work, nor device, nor knowledge, nor wisdom, in the grave [sheol], whither thou goest.

If your looking to eat it, go with Bartlett. "Bosch" is a kitchen appliance brand. "Bosc" is the pear type.

But Jesus was clear in His reference to "in the resurrection". Therefore He was referring to those men as being alive in resurrection, which had not happened yet. Matthew 22:31-32 KJV — But as touching the resurrection of the dead, have ye not read that which was spoken unto you by God, saying...

Some at the beginning, some at the end of the 1000 years.

There's a difference. I'm using scripture, rightly or wrongly, to support my assertion. You're rejecting what scripture says to support yours.

In other words, your words are more to be trusted than God's words. Why bother quoting scripture at all, then. Just write your own bible.

Well, it can be, but only through the shedding of blood (loss of life). Once the sinner has lost his life, his sins are expunged/paid for--the wages of sin is death.