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That's because you aren't capable of thinking outside your theological box. I'm right on point, and you know it. Answer the question, b57, though I know you cannot, because answering one way puts the blame on God for man's sin, and the other is my position, and there's no other way to answer...

That Israel and the Body of Christ are the same thing. They're not.

You have some pretty crazy ideas running around inside your head...

"The ability to speak does not make you intelligent." - Qui-Gon Jinn (Star Wars The Phantom Menace)

The fact that that seems like it came at you out of left field is because you're so blinded by Calvinism that you can't even follow your own arguments to their full conclusions. YOU, b57, said: So I asked: . . . because YOU say "Christ didn't die for the people who die in their sins." So...

Rabbit trail and evasion! You fully refuse to even acknowledge that the scripture says exactly what it says, and not what you want it to say.

I can clearly see the argument you're trying to make. And I'm telling you, you're wrong, because your position does damage to the rest of scripture.

Your premise is false, therefore your argument is wrong. Christ died for all, to provide a way for all to come for Him. He completely succeeded in that action. Christ predetermined, willed, before the foundation of the world that anyone who would come to Him, after He made a way available...

So it's Christ's fault that they died in their sins?

Rabbit trail and evasion! You fully refuse to even acknowledge that the scripture says exactly what it says, and not what you want it to say. Scripture: My little children, these things I write to you, so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus...

What you are stating is not a fact. What you're stating is an interpretation of scripture that does damage TO scripture.

Stomping your foot and demanding that it is so won't make it so. They are not the same. One is referring to a part of Israel, the other is referring to gentiles.

No, what I asked was: And I explained in post #204, and as Paul explains in Romans 10, preaching the gospel provides the lost the possibility of having hope. Then NO ONE has hope by the gospel, and anyone who preaches it is foolish, because it doesn't do a thing for those who are lost. So...

Not what the verse says. What if God, wanting to show His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, - Romans 9:22 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans9:22&version=NKJV

No, they're not. The first has Jesus talking about unbelieving Israel (not individual Israelites, but the unbelieving portion of the nation of Israel). The second is talking about the Gentiles. See, two different groups.

False

You're not even reading the verse... "To them that perish". Not "to them who were predestined to perish". They perish on their own decision. Not on God's. Did you forget that God says in His word: So shall My word be that goes forth from My mouth; It shall not return to Me void, But it...

These two verses are NOT referring to the same group of people. Forcing them to only results in confusion. False.

False. 1) "Love and hate" is a hebrew idiom that means to love more and to love. It means that the one you love more, you love them so much it's as if you hate the other person! Jesus Himself uses this idiom, where He said "love your neighbor as yourself" in the Old Testament, but says "love...

Is not Christ the living bread, and whoever eats of Him, will he not have everlasting life? If someone preaches Christ to the spiritually dead, is that not preaching life to them? If someone hears that life being preached to them, are they unable to respond to that life which is being...