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Only Christ's completed work on the cross merits salvation. And He graciously applies it to those who believe. He does not apply it to those who do not believe.

Repeating your argument doesn't make our rebuttals go away, nor does it make your argument any less wrong.

Only if that person has had Christ's death applied to him. Otherwise, it IS just to punish someone for their sin that has not been washed away by Christ's blood. Again: Christ's death, which covered the cost of the sins of the whole world (yes, every human being that has, does, and ever will...

All you have to do to get the answer to that is read my post, B57, which I know you just hate doing. You, not me, think that "the things of God" includes believing in Christ. But scripture says that believing in Christ and confessing He is Lord is a pre-condition of God gracing a person out...

Please provide the chapter and verse where it describes someone who is called but does not believe as someone who has been made alive. Because I can provide PLENTY of verses that say the exact opposite, where God calls people and yet they continue in their deadness.

No, you haven't. I have rejected your irrational rationalization for your beliefs, and I have shown HOW they are irrational. What do you say in response? "You still dont get it ! Its really simple !" As if that makes what you say any less irrational.

I repeat: Please provide the chapter and verse where it describes someone who is called but does not believe as someone who has been made alive. Because I can provide PLENTY of verses that say the exact opposite, where God calls people and yet they continue in their deadness.

Reposting what you said doesn't magically make our rebuttals go away.

In addition: faith is not meritorious. Having faith does not merit one's salvation.

AMEN!!!

A poor assumption to make, considering that there is no way to verify it.

Yes. Because Christ's death is not automatically applied to all men. It is only applied to those who believe. Again, His death is only applied to those who believe. If they believe, they are no longer committing the sin of unbelief. And he does, if they believe. If they do not believe...

Saying it doesn't make it so. Yes, I'm aware. And yet, one cannot believe unto righteousness or confess unto salvation if God has not called him. And yet, God still loves the unsaved person who is dead to Him, and wants to bring him back to life. You said: You, not me, think that "the...

Again: That's before God calls them. How about AFTER He calls them: Can a man, of his own free will, decide to accept or reject God AFTER He calls him?

If it's so simple, then it must be easy to explain. So explain.

Please provide the chapter and verse where it describes someone who is called but does not believe as someone who has been made alive. Because I can provide PLENTY of verses that say the exact opposite, where God calls people and yet they continue in their deadness.

You explained nothing, merely stated your belief. It does, by contrasting faith with works. You can't contrast two things if they're the same.

No, it doesn't. The verse doesn't say anything about being saved PRIOR to believing the things of God.

Saying it doesn't make it so. No, it would not. Except that belief isn't a work. It's simply an acknowledgment that one cannot work their way into heaven, and as a result, one puts their faith in the one who COMPLETED His work on the cross. If belief were a work, you'd be right. The...