Search results

Hebrews was written to *gasp* the Hebrews. It was not written to the Body of Christ. Yes, we in the Body of Christ can learn from it, but we MUST understand that we're reading someone else's mail! There's nothing "imaginary" about the time that Jesus spoke of. Also, just as Paul's Epistles...

All believers in the current dispensation are Christians. Saying it doesn't make it so. See my point about New York being established before it was called New York in Post #133. Because I never said that at all. Christ is returning to rapture Christians, which are neither Jew nor Greek...

It's LITERALLY the first verse in the book! Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, To the pilgrims of the Dispersion in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, - 1 Peter 1:1 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1Peter1:1&version=NKJV Given the context, not possible. Coming to...

Yes, and? We can call Paul the first Christian just like we can say New York was founded the same year New Amsterdam was founded. WRONG. "Neither Jew nor Greek"! There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ...

Why do you think Peter is talking about something that, chronologically speaking, had not been said yet by Paul? You're quoting from Acts 15. The phrase "the gospel of the grace of God" is in Acts 20. How do you get to, "here's what Peter had to say about [the phrase "the gospel of the grace...

Dispersion, the diaspora, is talking about Jews. Peter addresses his audience and mentions GENTILES as a party outside of those he's talking to. Ergo, he's talking to Jews ABOUT Gentiles. Mercy has EVERYTHING to do with LAW. The people of the LAW is Israel. Who? Context please?

Jews who believe come to believe in Christ in the present dispensation are Christians, yes. Prior to Paul's conversion, however, that is NOT the case. The first Christian.

So? But none of these things move me; nor do I count my life dear to myself, so that I may finish my race with joy, and the ministry which I received from the Lord Jesus, to testify to the gospel of the grace of God. - Acts 20:24...

Yes, that's our argument. But it WAS written FOR us. This is a textbook example of an argument from incredulity. It's a fallacy for a reason. Just because you don't see it doesn't mean it's false. Says the one reading scripture with her own indoctrination, reading her own beliefs into the...

It DOES mean that it was written "to the Hebrews." AKA Israel. It means that Ephesians was written *gasp!* to the Christians in Ephesus. You asked how we know that those verses were for the tribulation saints. The Tribulation saints are part of Israel, and the post I made shows you clearly...

Hebrews: Full title of the book is "The Epistle to the Hebrews" 🤯 1 Peter: See 1:1-2; 2:4-12; 5:1-4; all of which are references to Israel, their culture, or speaking as if to Israel in an "us vs them" mindset compared to the Gentiles 2 Peter: See 3:1; 2 Peter is written to the same group as 1...

This is begging the question. As I said later in the post you truncated, "priest," and the various forms of the word, shows up NOT ONCE in any of Paul's epistles. He's Israel's High Priest. You know, Israel, the nation that 1/12th of which is literally comprised of priests. Again, Paul NEVER...

https://kgov.com/copyright https://kgov.com/use-policy Kgov's use policy does not include sharing online the mp3s of those Bible studies. You'll have to purchase a copy yourself.

Christians will have been "caught up" prior to the Tribulation. If this were not the case, Paul wouldn't have told us to "comfort another with these words": But I do not want you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning those who have fallen asleep, lest you sorrow as others who have no hope.For...

Not necessarily. The authors of the Bible worded what they said very carefully. Paul included. The fact that he DID NOT mention fits very well with what he said about members of the Body of Christ being "neither Jew nor Greek." The holy priesthood of Israel was, by definition, of the Jews...

"Dispie/dispy" = Dispensationalist aka, people who recognize that there are different dispensations (greek: oikonomia) in the Bible

Do right, and risk the consequences!

I see what you're saying. But I still disagree that it would be "cherry picking." If a prophecy fails, and through its failure, a people turns to God, would that not be better, regardless of who's doctrine is vindicated?

Not at all. Not every prophecy deals with the end times. The prophecy of the last week of 70 weeks is dealing with the end times. What Jesus said deals specifically with the end times. Not at all. It's not.

That was directed at B57. Not you. He's not one to answer challenges to his position, so I was giving him a reminder of that.