@Ps82 (and @Bladerunner). It works better, and doesn't take as long, if you reply to the post from the link at the bottom of the post, then hit RETURN key at any point where you want to comment, assuming you are using the formatted editor.
Your response was also very clear and thorough in terms of explanation. But I'm hoping we can work through this using scripture to back up our assertions. I'll respond more later, when I have time.
The bible says "He" was buried, not "His body" was buried
Why do you say it was a non earthly place? Jesus went to Hades. Hades is sometimes translated as "grave". Graves are the epitome of earthly.
People? It doesn't say "people". It says "spirits". It doesn't even say "spirits of", just...
The issue that you're still not willing to address is that you have made your own moral code and are judging God by it. You've decided that the literal reading of the torment passages is impossible because you've defined them as sadistic. And now you're saying God's word, if not reinterpreted...
Here's what you said about the scriptures when you started this thread:
In that statement, you admit that the Bible contains statements about eternal torment, but you say it isn't literal.
You repeated your assertion in a later post:
So you admit that scriptures teach eternal torment, but you...
Yes, that's a definition of "soul" that allows for mortality of the soul, so you've shown my point to be possible. Can you show any passage in the bible that says the opposite--that the soul is immortal?
Can you give us a scripture reference that says the soul is immortal?
Here's one that says the opposite:
Ezekiel 18:4 KJV — Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die.
But how can one know anything in Hades/Sheol?
Ecclesiastes 9:10 KJV — Whatsoever thy hand findeth to do, do it with thy might; for there is no work, nor device, nor knowledge, nor wisdom, in the grave [sheol], whither thou goest.
But Jesus was clear in His reference to "in the resurrection". Therefore He was referring to those men as being alive in resurrection, which had not happened yet.
Matthew 22:31-32 KJV — But as touching the resurrection of the dead, have ye not read that which was spoken unto you by God, saying...
Well, it can be, but only through the shedding of blood (loss of life). Once the sinner has lost his life, his sins are expunged/paid for--the wages of sin is death.
Which I've shown doesn't mean what you say it means. Repeating the same assertion's after they've been discredited means you've run out of material, and you're no closer to convincing anyone of your view. Go back and review the answers you've received and see if you need to revise your position...
Remember that God commonly destroyed whole cities and even the whole world including children. He put His own people in bondage to the Egyptians, and purposely hardened Pharaoh's heart, knowing the work would get harder for them. So His love must be understood according to what He has done and...
Right, but you've ignored my post that says "destroyed" doesn't always mean "utterly destroyed". And "perish" sometimes means merely "die". Until you deal with that, the rest of your point is moot.