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...he says while not answering the question.

Why did Jesus descend into hell, where David wasn't?

I thought you said God can't die. Yet now you say Jesus is God. Did Jesus become God after He died? Or was He always God and somehow He died anyway? [1Ti 1:17 KJV] 17 Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise God, [be] honour and glory for ever and ever. Amen. IMMORTAL. 1. ...

Why do you "feel" that way?

Or God hasn't decided yet when it would be.

That sounds right to me. Jesus was given all power and authority, but not at first. Matthew 28:18 KJV — And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.

No, and I understand what you are saying, but there was some event, it seems to indicate, that changed the relationship in some way. I would suggest it was His resurrection, but it might be His ascension. Maybe a combo of the two.

Then you seem to be getting your information from a different source than the passage we're talking about. Remember this is the last verse we duscussed: 1 Peter 3:22 KJV — Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers BEING MADE subject unto him..

What's your point (in this thread, that is)?

Right, where the spirits (angels, authorities, powers) are now subject to Him. Yeah, me too, until I figured out spell check sabotaged me. Meant to say, "Somebody ought to tell them." Iow, how do those spirits (angels, authorities, and powers) know that they are now subject to Christ if no one...

I think you're posting in the wrong thread. 😉

I can see that as a possibility. But the argue weakens with the final verse in the chapter, where the focus returns to actual spirits. 1 Peter 3:22 KJV — Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him. Again, they were...

My daughter made me pancakes this morning...sans kitty litter scooper.

That's easy enough to say, and it seems true to me, but you don't get that from the 1 Peter 3:19 passage, where a specific group is addressed, including only those from before the flood, not after. Who said anything about teaching them. The word is "preach", or "proclaim", like a herald would...

That could be, but it leaves us to assume it somehow applied to everone after the flood, rather than speaking about some group that is different. I think it's probably talking about the angels that left their first estate, and are now in chains under darkness reserved for judgment, Jude 6