ECT Did the "Eternal Word" merge with a newly created human mind, will, and emotions?

glorydaz

Well-known member
You would be the only Christian I recall talking with who believes in the HU (Hypostatic Union) and yet they do not believe Jesus could have potentially sinned.

In fact, I am glad you believe that. It is quite disturbing to suggest that Jesus could have sinned, and yet many believe that (Wrongfully).

I'm not so sure they believe "potential" equals any possibility, whatsoever.
It's like that old question, Can God create a rock too big for Him to lift?

Those who know Jesus is God, know He could never sin....even after adding on Humanity.
For, when is humanity stronger than Deity? Never.

Paul touches on something here you may find applicable. I certainly do.

2 Cor. 10:3 For though we walk in the flesh, we do not war after the flesh:​

I don't personally believe Jesus was newly created. I believe Jesus is eternal.

Which is true of all those who recognize Jesus is both God and Man. Divine and Human.

I am suggesting that this is a problem for the person who believes in the Hypostatic Union (Whether they realize it is a problem or not). For if Jesus was fully human in the sense that he took on a newly created mind, will, and emotions than Jesus would be a newly created being or person within the universe. He would be a first time unique soul in the universe to be first so as to be both God and a finite human soul for the first time.

HE IS a unique being....no doubt about it. So how is that a problem?

Yet, if this is so, then how can Jesus claim to know Abraham?

Jesus was God from the beginning. John 1:1 Of course He knew Abraham...Jesus is the Great I AM.

But if Jesus simply took on a man suit and He suppressed His divine attribute of Omniscience, then there is no real problem or series of problems that we have to fix.

Erase that idea of a "man suit". A "man suit" cannot suffer and die for the sins of the world.

And He certainly didn't suppress his Omniscience....He told us He was before Abraham. How did He even know that if He's suppressed His knowledge of Abraham?
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
I believe the Eternal Logos merged with an empty shell of a soulless human body.

When do you imagine that happened? When He was conceived of the Holy Ghost in the womb of Mary? You know how babies are conceived, don't you? There is no "empty shell" of any kind.....ever.


So Jesus is two persons? A person who is God and a person who is human? Jesus can speak from His divine person side and yet speak sometimes from His human side? However, those who believe in the HU, say that Jesus is a perfect unity of God and man. If this is the case, then Jesus could not technically say that He knows Abraham. He would have to say that the God portion of Him knows Abraham. But it would not be accurate of Him to say that if there was a finite human soul thrown into the mix.

It's quite a mystery to you, isn't it? Jesus never HAS to say any such thing. He is more clever in His wording. :)

You sound just like the Jews. It was a mystery to them, too. How can this be?

John 8:57
57 Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham?​

He explains...He is the great I AM...before Abraham even was.

John 8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

When the Jews realized He was claiming to be the great I AM, they threw stones at Him for such blasphemy. But, being God, Jesus was able to walk through the midst of them without being seen or touched by the stones.

John 8:59 Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.​
 

Jason0047

Member
When do you imagine that happened? When He was conceived of the Holy Ghost in the womb of Mary? You know how babies are conceived, don't you? There is no "empty shell" of any kind.....ever.




It's quite a mystery to you, isn't it? Jesus never HAS to say any such thing. He is more clever in His wording. :)

You sound just like the Jews. It was a mystery to them, too. How can this be?

John 8:57
57 Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham?​

He explains...He is the great I AM...before Abraham even was.

John 8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

When the Jews realized He was claiming to be the great I AM, they threw stones at Him for such blasphemy. But, being God, Jesus was able to walk through the midst of them without being seen or touched by the stones.

John 8:59 Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.​

Try explaining how the mechanics work. How can Jesus say that He knows Abraham if He was a newly created being?
The human portion of Jesus could not say this or agree with this because the human portion was created in the Incarnation. This is why the HU is illogical.

As for what I believe the Bible teaches:
Well, the Eternal Logos merged with a human living flesh and blood body of a man. It was a living body. The Eternal Logos through this living body suffered on our behalf.
 

Jason0047

Member
I'm not so sure they believe "potential" equals any possibility, whatsoever.
It's like that old question, Can God create a rock too big for Him to lift?

This is unrelated. Saying that Jesus could have potentially sinned is saying that He could have actually sinned. I had folks tell me that they can relate to Jesus better knowing the fact that He could have sinned. So no. They actually think he could have sinned.

You said:
Those who know Jesus is God, know He could never sin....even after adding on Humanity.
For, when is humanity stronger than Deity? Never.

Right, which is why others who say that Jesus could have sinned are wrong.


You said:
HE IS a unique being....no doubt about it. So how is that a problem?

Problems Involving Christ Having Both a Divine Soul & a Human Soul:

1. Jesus is not unique, and He is similar to demigods (Who are the offspring of a god and a human, like: Hercules, Achilles, and Perseus).

2. The partial worship of a created human soul, and human mind suggests that we may be worshiping the creation and not the Creator.

3. It attacks the impeccable character of Jesus Christ or the Eternal Logos. For some people think that Jesus had lusts and or that He could have potentially sinned (but merely did not sin).

4. Statements made by Christ and other Scripture that talks about His pre-existence and or eternal existence or Heavenly origin are problematic because He became a newly created being within the universe by taking on a created Human Soul within the Incarnation.

5. It does not appear to pass one of the tests given to Christians. For 1 John 4:2 states, "Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God."

6. It can potentially lead people to falsely claim that Jesus needed to pay the price for our sin using a human soul (i.e. a human mind, will, and emotions) when Scripture says that He bore our sins within His body and it is His shed blood that washes away our sin (that simply comes from having a human body). 1 Peter 2:24 clearly says that Jesus bore our sins in his body and not within his soul. For it is by Christ’s shed blood that washes away our sins (1 John 1:7). Some have suggested that Jesus’s soul needed to suffer in hell as a part of our redemption, but Scripture does not state such a thing.

7. 1 Timothy 3:16 that says that God was manifested in the flesh is not exactly accurate if He were to become a newly created being within the universe by His also taking on a newly created human soul (i.e. a created human mind, will, and emotions).

Jesus was God from the beginning. John 1:1 Of course He knew Abraham...Jesus is the Great I AM.

So Jesus did not take on a human mind, will, and emotions? How can Jesus claim to Know Abraham if the human portion only exists in the Incarnation? In other words, how can the human portion of Jesus make any claim to know Abraham?

You said:
Erase that idea of a "man suit". A "man suit" cannot suffer and die for the sins of the world.

The Eternal Logos was made flesh. That is God in a man suit or a temple. Jesus called His body a temple. A temple is an empty building. The Eternal Logos can most certainly suffer in a physical body of a man (with no need for a human mind, will, and emotions).

You said:
And He certainly didn't suppress his Omniscience....He told us He was before Abraham. How did He even know that if He's suppressed His knowledge of Abraham?

Obviously Jesus knew many things. I believe that He was able to have some knowledge as God, but not all of it. But we know that Jesus was not Omniscient during His earthly ministry. For Scripture says that Jesus grew in wisdom (See Luke 2:52). Scripture says He did not know the day or hour of His return (See Matthew 24:36).
 
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Jason0047

Member
In the Son of God film, they write into the scene where Jesus is tempted in the wilderness to say that He worships the Lord His God.

You can check that scene out for yourself here:


Again, I believe this stems from people blindly believing in the HU or Hypostatic Union without doing their own homework in the Word of God to see if such a truth is actually taught in the Scriptures. They just accept the HU because some creed said in the past.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
I believe the Eternal Logos merged with an empty shell of a soulless human body. There was no need for the Eternal Logos to take on an existing newly created human non corporeal mind, will, and emotions or a tailored made human soul.

If the Lord Jesus did not possess a human will then why was His will different from the Father's will (Mt.26:29)?
 

Jason0047

Member
Again, I want to stress to folks here that I believe in the Trinity. I believe the Lord our GOD is one GOD and that He also exists as three distinct persons (i.e. the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost - 1 John 5:7).

The Scriptures clearly teach the Trinity. But it does not teach a Hypostatic Union. What the Scriptures do teach is that Christ exhibited divine behavior and He also exhibited human behavior. The Bible does not specifically state HOW He has these two kinds of behaviors. But if we do come up with an explanation, it should be consistent with the rest of Scripture. The HU (Hypostatic Union) is not consistent with the rest of Scripture. I may be listed as a heretic or that I am in error by some Christians for saying that, but I cannot unlearn what GOD has clearly shown to me within His Word.
 

Jason0047

Member
If the Lord Jesus did not possess a human will then why was His will different from the Father's will (Mt.26:29)?

The Scriptures clearly teach the Trinity (1 John 5:7). But it does not teach a Hypostatic Union. What the Scriptures do teach is that Christ exhibited divine behavior and He also exhibited human behavior. The Bible does not specifically state HOW He has these two kinds of behaviors. But if we do come up with an explanation, it should be consistent with the rest of Scripture. The HU (Hypostatic Union) is not consistent with the rest of Scripture.

The Hypostatic Union is a poor explanation because it fails on many accounts involving Scripture. Showing these truths to Christians are useless if they are close minded to begin with and they are stuck believing a creed is true rather than doing their own homework with the Bible.

The explanation I have put forth makes more sense and I am not stating it is hard core fact. It is merely one possibility. For we look through a glass darkly. But my explanation is more consistent with Scripture. The HU is not a valid explanation. We have to be good Bereans and search the Scriptures to see whether these things are so or not (Acts 17:11).
 

Jason0047

Member
If the Lord Jesus did not possess a human will then why was His will different from the Father's will (Mt.26:29)?

The Trinity doctrine as taught from Scripture teaches that the Lord our God is one God and yet He also exists as distinct persons. Distinct persons means that each person of the Godhead or the Trinity have their own unique distinctive wills that make up their own person but they are all a part of the collective whole in being one GOD (and not three separate gods). I believe the Eternal Logos suppressed His divine attribute of Omniscience before the world began (As a part of the plan GOD had for us). I believe this based on John 17:5, Habakkuk 2:14, 2 Corinthians 4:6, Romans 5:14 cf. Genesis 2:17, and Genesis 3:22.

Jesus desired to share again in the "glory" that he once had with GOD the Father before the world. I believe this "glory" is the "glory of the knowledge of the LORD" as mentioned in Habakkuk 2:14, and 2 Corinthians 4:6. I believe Jesus was a parallel or like figure or type of Adam (Romans 5:14 NLT). Seeing Adam was suppressed in knowledge for a short time (Seeing that Adam did not have the knowledge of good and evil as a part of GOD's command - Genesis 2:17), Jesus also would need to be limited in knowledge in some way, too. This knowledge was held back by their obedience to a command.
 

Jason0047

Member
If the Lord Jesus did not possess a human will then why was His will different from the Father's will (Mt.26:29)?

The Bible teaches that there is one God (Deuteronomy 6:4) (1 Timothy 2:5) (Isaiah 45:5).

Yet, the Bible also teaches that there are distinctions within the Godhead or that there is a plural nature to God.

Here are a couple of quick points:

#1. The word Elohim (אֱלֹהִ֔ים) is both a singular and a plural noun.
#2. God refers to Himself in plural form (Genesis 1:26) (Genesis 3:22) (Genesis 11:7) (Isaiah 6:8).
#3. Plurality of God in New Testament (Matthew 28:19) (2 Corinthians 13:14) (John 14:16-20).
#4. Introductions to both the Son & Holy Spirit (Daniel 7:9-10, Daniel 7:13-14) (John 14:16)
#5. Different persons of Godhead appear at one time (Luke 3:21-22)
#6. Distinctions of Wills (Luke 22:42).
#7. Conversations Between the Godhead (Psalms 2:1-12) (Psalms 45:6-7) (Psalms 110:1) (Matthew 11:27) (John 17:24).

The Trinity is told to us in one verse.

“For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.” (1 John 5:7).

In other words, one does not need a human mind, will, and emotions. The Trinity itself can express distinctive wills among the harmony or unity of the Godhead.
 

Jason0047

Member
So was it all a big ruse? Christ wasn't human but He exhibited human behavior? It was all a show to fool mankind?

Christ was clearly human in the sense that He had a physical flesh and blood body that came from the DNA of Mary (Which was in the line of Adam). But there needs to be a compromise when it comes to the soul. GOD cannot change the core essence of who He is involving His mind, will, and emotions. GOD made it clear that we are to worship GOD alone, and yet if the Eternal Logos (who is GOD) took on a human mind, will, and emotions, then there would be a portion of Himself that would not be GOD. So if we decided to worship Jesus, this presents a problem with GOD teaching that we are to worship God alone. For how can we separate the human portion of Jesus while worshiping Jesus? It makes no sense. But if the body is just a temple as Jesus said, then this does not present a problem. The body is just a shell or a husk or an outer covering like a cloak.


You said:
Please give your best Scriptual evidence which demonstrates that HU is in error.

Here is my full list of biblical reasons Jesus only had a divine soul and no newly created human soul (Which is a refutation of the Hypostatic Union):

#1. Hebrews 7:26 - "For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens;"

Jesus is holy, harmless, undefiled, and separate from sinners. He was made higher than the heavens. He became us (in the fact that he had a flesh and blood body), but he was holy. A person or being who is truly holy, harmless, undefiled and separate from sinners does not have the capacity to sin. Some HU proponents say that Jesus had a human nature whereby He had the ability to potentially do evil. This means that in order to do evil or sin, one must have lusts or bad desires within them in order to carry out or act upon those wrong desires or lusts. Yet, the Bible says he was holy, undefiled and separate from sinners.

#2. 1 John 2:16 - "For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world."

This verse states that the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life is not of the Father, but is of the world.

Jesus said, "I and my Father are one." (John 10:30).

So if Jesus is truly one with the Father (and He is), then Jesus cannot also have any lusts of the flesh, or lusts of the eyes, or the pride of life. These things are of the world. In fact, the devil tried to offer Jesus the kingdoms of this world, but He refused his offer.

#3. Micah 5:2 - "But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting."

This is a Messianic prophecy that talks about how Jesus will be a ruler over Israel one day. It says that the origin of this ruler (Jesus) is from of old, from everlasting. Alternatively however if Jesus had a human soul or human mind, it suggests that Jesus was a newly created being that did not exist before the Incarnation. He would not have technically existed from everlasting if he joined with a newly created human counterpart in the Incarnation. The Word was made flesh and dwelt among us. His origins are from everlasting in the fact that He is the eternal Living Word (or the Word of God as Revelation says). Jesus. He always existed. This presents a problem for Hypostatic Union (HU).

#4. 1 John 4:2 - "Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God."

It's a pretty fair conclusion to make that Jesus was unlike us. He was unique. This verse is not saying that he was like us. This verse does not say after he came into the flesh he became known as the man called, Jesus Christ. That is not what we are to confess. We are to confess that Jesus Christ is COME in the flesh. What this verse is suggesting (like other verses) is that Jesus Christ has always existed. Jesus Christ is COME (entered) into the flesh or body of a man. In fact, Jesus was laughed at when he said he knew Abraham. But Jesus said this to them, "Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am" (John 8:58). After the crowd heard this: The crowd went ape crazy and they picked up stones to throw at him. In other words, Jesus is saying He has always existed. He did not come down into a newly created human soul or spirit and take on a human nature so as to potentially sin. That wouldn't make any sense. For me this is a really strong point for this position.

#5. 1 Peter 2:24 - "Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed."

Many believe that the atonement is denied if one does not believe Jesus had a human nature. But having a human soul or human spirit is not a requirement in order for God to redeem us of our sins. How so? Peter says that Jesus took on our sins in his body on the cross. So the human spirit and or human soul is not necessary for our salvation. Jesus's blood is what washes away our sins and not the soul or some spirit. For a high price was paid for our sins, and that was with Christ's death.

#6. 1 Timothy 3:16 - "And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."

This verse says that God was manifest in the flesh. It does not say God was manifest through a human soul or human spirit along with that flesh. God was manifest in the flesh. However, if Jesus took on a human soul, and human spirit, it really wouldn't be God manifesting in the flesh (according to this verse) because He would be like every other believer who has God living inside of them. Jesus was unique and different from us. Jesus was literally GOD. He was manifest in the flesh.

#7. John 14:30 - "Hereafter I will not talk much with you: for the prince of this world cometh, and hath nothing in me."

Jesus is claiming that the devil has nothing inside of him. Meaning, Jesus does not have any of the lusts of the devil residing within himself (Which would be present in a normal corrupt human nature).

Jesus says to certain Jews, "Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. " (John 8:44).

So Jesus is describing something of his opponents that they do, which does not apply to Him.

For Jesus says, "If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42).

So lusts do not reside in Jesus. So the false belief that Jesus could have sinned because he had a human nature does not work.

14 "But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.
15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death." (James 1:14-15).

#8. Jesus said:
"For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me." (John 6:38).

Now, stop and think about this for a moment. If Jesus said He came down from Heaven, then that means He was either:

(a) He was not telling the entire truth because He was referring to some divine portion of Himself (or):

(b) He was telling the entire truth and He actually did come down from Heaven and He was not created in the Incarnation as some newly created being who had a new human soul, and or human mind, etc.​

Also, if Jesus is able to speak from His divine part of Himself, how is able to shut off the human part of Himself? How is Jesus able to disconnect His human mind, will, and emotions? Jesus said He came down from Heaven. Jesus did not say He came from the Incarnation as if that was His beginning. Again, this is yet another strong point for this position. But many Christians are convinced that the Hypostatic Union (HU) is the truth. What do you say is the truth on this with Scripture?

#9. if Jesus is worshiped as GOD, then that disqualifies Him in fully being a man because man is not to be worshiped as GOD because man is limited and only a created being. For Jesus says, "Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve." (Luke 4:8).

#10. Isaiah 43:11 says, "I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour."
This means that there cannot be a newly created Savior to sit next to God. Jesus could not have merged with a newly created human mind, will, and emotions (i.e. a human soul) so as to be a unique Savior to God. Jesus is God, and He is the Savior. If Jesus is a newly created being in the universe, then technically He would be able to be next to the Lord and be beside Him.
 
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glorydaz

Well-known member
This is unrelated. Saying that Jesus could have potentially sinned is saying that He could have actually sinned. I had folks tell me that they can relate to Jesus better knowing the fact that He could have sinned. So no. They actually think he could have sinned.



Right, which is why others who say that Jesus could have sinned are wrong.




Problems Involving Christ Having Both a Divine Soul & a Human Soul:

1. Jesus is not unique, and He is similar to demigods (Who are the offspring of a god and a human, like: Hercules, Achilles, and Perseus).

2. The partial worship of a created human soul, and human mind suggests that we may be worshiping the creation and not the Creator.

3. It attacks the impeccable character of Jesus Christ or the Eternal Logos. For some people think that Jesus had lusts and or that He could have potentially sinned (but merely did not sin).

4. Statements made by Christ and other Scripture that talks about His pre-existence and or eternal existence or Heavenly origin are problematic because He became a newly created being within the universe by taking on a created Human Soul within the Incarnation.

5. It does not appear to pass one of the tests given to Christians. For 1 John 4:2 states, "Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God."

6. It can potentially lead people to falsely claim that Jesus needed to pay the price for our sin using a human soul (i.e. a human mind, will, and emotions) when Scripture says that He bore our sins within His body and it is His shed blood that washes away our sin (that simply comes from having a human body). 1 Peter 2:24 clearly says that Jesus bore our sins in his body and not within his soul. For it is by Christ’s shed blood that washes away our sins (1 John 1:7). Some have suggested that Jesus’s soul needed to suffer in hell as a part of our redemption, but Scripture does not state such a thing.

7. 1 Timothy 3:16 that says that God was manifested in the flesh is not exactly accurate if He were to become a newly created being within the universe by His also taking on a newly created human soul (i.e. a created human mind, will, and emotions).



So Jesus did not take on a human mind, will, and emotions? How can Jesus claim to Know Abraham if the human portion only exists in the Incarnation? In other words, how can the human portion of Jesus make any claim to know Abraham?



The Eternal Logos was made flesh. That is God in a man suit or a temple. Jesus called His body a temple. A temple is an empty building. The Eternal Logos can most certainly suffer in a physical body of a man (with no need for a human mind, will, and emotions).



Obviously Jesus knew many things. I believe that He was able to have some knowledge as God, but not all of it. But we know that Jesus was not Omniscient during His earthly ministry. For Scripture says that Jesus grew in wisdom (See Luke 2:52). Scripture says He did not know the day or hour of His return (See Matthew 24:36).

This post is too long. Break it down point by point and then we can discuss it. When you post so many things that I would disagree with, I throw up my hands and move along.

I would say this....the very idea of what "portion" said this or did that is causing you all kinds of confusion. Jesus is fully and completely God and fully and completely Man. I'm not sure why you can't accept that our all powerful God could come and dwell among us as a man and still remain God. :idunno:
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
Try explaining how the mechanics work. How can Jesus say that He knows Abraham if He was a newly created being?

He wasn't a newly created being. He came as a newborn babe.

The human portion of Jesus could not say this or agree with this because the human portion was created in the Incarnation. This is why the HU is illogical.

Jesus didn't stop being God when He came to dwell among us.

As for what I believe the Bible teaches:
Well, the Eternal Logos merged with a human living flesh and blood body of a man. It was a living body. The Eternal Logos through this living body suffered on our behalf.

He was conceived of the Holy Ghost...Son of God....born of a woman....Son of Man.

Keep it simple. It actually is simple.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Christ was clearly human in the sense that He had a physical flesh and blood body that came from the DNA of Mary (Which was in the line of Adam).

Do not those who are born of humans have what Paul called an "inner man" at birth?

The Lord Jesus is now in the heavenly kingdom as Man (Acts 7:56) but He is not in a flesh and blood body (1 Cor.15:50). In what sense is He now the Son of Man?
 

Jason0047

Member
Do not those who are born of humans have what Paul called an "inner man" at birth?

We have a created soul and spirit... "yes."

But GOD has always had a soul and spirit from eternity's past. God is eternal.

Adding a newly created human mind, will, emotions, and conscience, etc. to GOD means that there is a portion or part of God that we cannot worship. Jesus Himself said we are to worship God alone. A newly created human mind, will, emotions, and conscience is not God or divine in any way, and as a result, this would be a problem in our worship in Jesus being God. For we cannot cut the human mind, will, emotions and conscience of Jesus out of Jesus so as to worship Him solely as God.

In other words, do you feel it is proper to worship human beings as if they are God?

You said:
The Lord Jesus is now in the heavenly kingdom as Man (Acts 7:56) but He is not in a flesh and blood body (1 Cor.15:50). In what sense is He now the Son of Man?

Jesus is the exception to the rule on 1 Corinthians 15:50. The context of 1 Corinthians 15:50 is us and not Jesus.

Jesus forever lives in a flesh and blood body.

"I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death." (Revelation 1:18).

"Wherefore he is able also to save them to the uttermost that come unto God by him, seeing he ever liveth to make intercession for them." (Hebrews 7:25).

“the life of the flesh is in the blood” (Leviticus 17:11).

"In Luke 24:39, after Jesus had risen and ascended to the Father, He came before His followers and said, "See my hands and my feet, that it is I myself. Touch me, and see. For a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see that I have.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Jesus is the exception to the rule on 1 Corinthians 15:50. The context of 1 Corinthians 15:50 is us and not Jesus.

Jesus forever lives in a flesh and blood body.

When the believers in the Body of Christ will be caught up to meet the Lord Jesus in the air they will put on glorious bodies like His glorious body. So when those believers enter the heavenly kingdom what kind of bodies will they have?
 

Jason0047

Member
When the believers in the Body of Christ will be caught up to meet the Lord Jesus in the air they will put on glorious bodies like His glorious body. So when those believers enter the heavenly kingdom what kind of bodies will they have?

It's a bit of a complicated explanation.

Do you believe Jesus made pre-incarnate appearances in the Old Testament?
If you do not know about this truth, then I am not sure you will see where I am coming from.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
It's a bit of a complicated explanation.

Do you believe Jesus made pre-incarnate appearances in the Old Testament?
If you do not know about this truth, then I am not sure you will see where I am coming from.

That does not answer my question:

When the believers in the Body of Christ will be caught up to meet the Lord Jesus in the air they will put on glorious bodies like His glorious body. So when those believers enter the heavenly kingdom what kind of bodies will they have?
 
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