ARCHIVE: Open Theism part 2

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Nang

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Not really, for it pertains to human nature to have a will, just as the divine nature has a will.

Yes, it pertains to created humans to have a human will (motivations), but the divine nature is uncreated, and the divine nature of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit have but one will (motivation).



Now, since both natures remained in their integrity, not being fused together, then it follows that the will that corresponded to each nature was also left intact and thus there were in Christ two wills.

Not if the motivation of uniting human with divine, was Godly motivation (will).


Having two wills poses a problem only if both wills are in conflict, as in one willing one thing and the other another.

Exactly. And this is what the Son of God demonstrated in His incarnation . . a perfect example of human will in total harmony and submission to the divine will. Jesus, as God/Man was motivated (willed) by only the divine purposes, decrees, and Word of God.

But this is not how the two wills are in Christ, where the human will is freely subordinated to the divine will and thus when it comes to the act of willing, both have as their aim the same object and act in unity, the human will obeying the divine will. As far as this unity goes, one may speak of one will, if by will we understand not the the mere factuality of willing but the willing itself, the act. So, since both the human and the divine will act in harmony, we may think of them as a single will when it comes to the performance of an act.

What I say and what Christ exemplied as a Man.


The divine will did not become lesser nor did it change, it is simply that since human nature was assumed and human nature has a will, then there were two wills, each belonging to it's respective nature.

Christ's human nature willed to exemplify harmony between man and God. He succeeded through obedient faithfulness to the Law (Word) of God. Faithfulness, then being, the only way for willful men to serve the divine will of God.




If by this you mean that he had two wills that acted in unity (what we may understand by will, as I said above), then yes, in that sense we may speak of Christ possessing one will.

No, I do not concede this point. Jesus Christ came in human flesh, exhibiting volitional subservience to the will of God. That was His ONLY heart motivation. He possessed no other will, than to do the will of His Father.

But if by this you mean that there was only one will that emerged due to a combination of the two natures,

Indeed, I do . . .for this was the purpose and miracle of God coming in flesh! Jesus Christ, coming as Perfect Man, provided the means for created beings to live according to the will of uncreated God; acceptable through submission of their human wills to the divine will of God. This was the GAP between fallen man and God that needed to be BRIDGED and Jesus Christ impretated this reconciliation!



then this idea cannot be accepted for it violates the integrity of both natures (that will would not be neither human nor divine but something else), it would go against the Chalcedonian definition, which I am sure you agree with and would also land us straight into the heresy of Monothelitism, who proposed a single will in Christ.


Evo

Adam was the one who fought for the integrity of "human will." And he fell into sin trying. I find no basis for created beings, human by nature, created by the sovereign will of God, to desire to possess a will different or distinct or autonomous from the will of their Maker.

Nang
 

godrulz

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Nang is usually in line with the creeds and Councils. They did settle on a two will theory for Christ later in church history (divine/human with human subordinate to divine). This is the official orthodox position.

I intuitively lean to Nang's idea of one will. Jesus is one person with two natures, but I have trouble seeing two wills in one person. He submitted His will to the Father, but I wonder why the Councils concluded He has two wills in one person.:cheers:
 

Philetus

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Nang is usually in line with the creeds and Councils. They did settle on a two will theory for Christ later in church history (divine/human with human subordinate to divine). This is the official orthodox position.

I intuitively lean to Nang's idea of one will. Jesus is one person with two natures, but I have trouble seeing two wills in one person. He submitted His will to the Father, but I wonder why the Councils concluded He has two wills in one person.:cheers:

How can 'not my will but yours be done" be read as my will not existing? Did Jesus submit something that did not exist? Were these just words to keep the Councils busy?

It seems it is impossible for a simple unchanging God (as classical theology tries to portray Him) to incarnate into such a complicated and messy world where human beings work overtime to make it at least difficult for Him to draw near and make Himself known.




Quote:
Originally Posted by Philetus
Perhaps what God abandoned at the cross was His complete and utter separation from humanity on the basis of His absolute righteousness. The life and death of God in the flesh was in no way a compromise of God’s holiness, yet He took upon Himself the sins of the whole world and in that moment (on the cross) of accountability for sin could not look upon Himself in that state.
Evo: Well, this doesn't makes sense in light of the verse in question. For that would mean that God abandoned his separation from humanity and that then God cried to himself why he has forsaken himself. This sounds awfully similar to how atheists mock the work of the cross in that they say that God sacrificed himself to himself in order to save us from himself.
And that offends you why? Is it the mocking tone, its crudeness or the ring of accuracy? Is Jesus not our mediator? Does He not now intercede for us? Is He not the propitiation for our sins? Is Jesus not now God? The very act of drawing near to us is an act of abandonment of separation. What ever prevented our oneness with God died on the cross and what ever makes it possible for our unity with and in Christ sprang to life in the resurrection. How can anyone then say that God in Christ did not fully experience the cross? How can such an experience not change God in some way?

They are big issues.

Philetus
 

Evoken

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Nang said:
Yes, it pertains to created humans to have a human will (motivations), but the divine nature is uncreated, and the divine nature of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit have but one will (motivation).

Yes, we agree on this.


Not if the motivation of uniting human with divine, was Godly motivation (will).

Yes, but you are talking about the divine will before the incarnation. What I am talking about is the divine and human nature as they are in Christ since the incarnation. Of course it was God's initiative that brought the incarnation about, nobody is denying that.


Exactly. And this is what the Son of God demonstrated in His incarnation . . a perfect example of human will in total harmony and submission to the divine will. Jesus, as God/Man was motivated (willed) by only the divine purposes, decrees, and Word of God.

Yes, as St. Paul said he became "obedient unto death" (Philippians 2:8).


Christ's human nature willed to exemplify harmony between man and God. He succeeded through obedient faithfulness to the Law (Word) of God. Faithfulness, then being, the only way for willful men to serve the divine will of God.

I am not sure why you are contending with what I said if we agree :)


No, I do not concede this point. Jesus Christ came in human flesh, exhibiting volitional subservience to the will of God. That was His ONLY heart motivation. He possessed no other will, than to do the will of His Father.

Nobody is saying that he had some other motivation than to do the will of the Father. As I said, his human will was subordinate and thus obedient to the divine will at all times. As he himself says: "I came down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him that sent me." (John 6:38).


Indeed, I do . . .for this was the purpose and miracle of God coming in flesh! Jesus Christ, coming as Perfect Man, provided the means for created beings to live according to the will of uncreated God; acceptable through submission of their human wills to the divine will of God. This was the GAP between fallen man and God that needed to be BRIDGED and Jesus Christ impretated this reconciliation!

What you are saying here does not relates to what you quoted. I am speaking only about Christ and the human and divine natures as they are united in him. I am not talking about other humans nor about the will of God to bring the incarnation about.


Adam was the one who fought for the integrity of "human will." And he fell into sin trying. I find no basis for created beings, human by nature, created by the sovereign will of God, to desire to possess a will different or distinct or autonomous from the will of their Maker.

This again does not relates to what you quoted and I am not sure exactly what you mean by it. Remember, I am talking about the divine and human nature in Christ, so Adam or other human creatures simply do not enter the picture. The issue is very simple and there is no need to complicate things. Was Christ both perfect man and perfect God? If yes, then since both natures have by nature a will, then Christ being both fully human and fully God had two wills. Both wills however, being not in opposition but the human will being in harmony and subordinate to the divine will and willing always what the divine willed. This keeps both natures intact, as the Chalcedonian definition, which I already mentioned says and also avoids the heresy of Monothelitism, which proposed a single will in Christ. Do you agree or disagree? Why?


Evo
 

RobE

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Not really, for it pertains to human nature to have a will, just as the divine nature has a will. Now, since both natures remained in their integrity, not being fused together, then it follows that the will that corresponded to each nature was also left intact and thus there were in Christ two wills.
.......

If by this you mean that he had two wills that acted in unity (what we may understand by will, as I said above), then yes, in that sense we may speak of Christ possessing one will. But if by this you mean that there was only one will that emerged due to a combination of the two natures, then this idea cannot be accepted for it violates the integrity of both natures (that will would not be neither human nor divine but something else), it would go against the Chalcedonian definition, which I am sure you agree with and would also land us straight into the heresy of Monothelitism, who proposed a single will in Christ.


Evo

I would propose that we need remember that man was made in God's image; and God was not re-made in man's image!

Therefore man's will is an image of that which God already posessed and Jesus Christ did NOT have a separate essence or a changed essence after He was incarnated.

The wills, as the doctors of the Church have concluded, flows from the essence of the individual. Christ was not pluralistic in essence, but was pluralistic within His nature and will; being both divine and man simultaneously. We might say that Christ had a conflict within Himself over which nature would ultimately control His own essential will and was therefore completely human. We do indeed have competing natures whithin ourselves(essence), but not the steadfast will to obey the correct nature which He did. Does this mean we have multiple essences because we have different natures? Of course not. Within our essence, we have one one essential will and not two. Within our actions we have multiple wills according to the use of the language in describing our actions. This is semantics only!

This can be expressed in the opposite since the language is so ill-defined. We might say that Christ had two natures within His essence; resulting in two different wills(the human and the divine). --- However we have only one essential will which results in our one action. That action is what we do despite the influences.

As the teaching of the Chalcedonian definition suggests:

But if the word will is taken to mean not the faculty but the decision taken by the will (the will willed, not the will willing), then it is true that the two wills always acted in harmony: there were two wills willing and two acts, but one object, one will willed; in the phrase of St. Maximus, there were duo thelemata though mia gnome.​
Source

It's the term will within language which causes our disputes. Christ had one essence and not two. Within that essence was only one essential will, but pluralistic natural/supernatural wills.

The definition speaks to the latter, Nang speaks to the first.

Thanks,
Rob
 

Evoken

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As the teaching of the Chalcedonian definition suggests:

But if the word will is taken to mean not the faculty but the decision taken by the will (the will willed, not the will willing), then it is true that the two wills always acted in harmony: there were two wills willing and two acts, but one object, one will willed; in the phrase of St. Maximus, there were duo thelemata though mia gnome.​
Source

Yes, that is the same thing I said in my previous post: "...both have as their aim the same object and act in unity, the human will obeying the divine will. As far as this unity goes, one may speak of one will, if by will we understand not the the mere factuality of willing but the willing itself, the act. So, since both the human and the divine will act in harmony, we may think of them as a single will when it comes to the performance of an act."

There are two faculties in Christ, the human and the divine and one thing willed by both, as your citation explains. As you say, Nang is talking about the second aspect, whereas I and the citation are speaking about the first, that is, the faculty.


Evo
 

Yorzhik

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That's right! And ultimate responsibility was taken up with the Cross!
No. I clearly said responsibility was taken up before the foundation of the world, and executed at creation. I cannot imagine what you mean with this statement.

Now if you meant that Christ is responsible because He sinned, then you have a skewed and perverse sense of responsibility.
How you get what you say here from the statement "Then there is only one cause. Whatever the first cause caused, is the responsibility of the first cause if it is exhaustively foreknown what the first cause will cause." I cannot imagine. What kind of torture goes on to the English language between the words you see on the screen and your brain?

Even though, He took responsibility for sin through giving His own life up as a remedy doesn't mean that He participated and sinned Himself. Whatever responsibility the First Cause had towards creation was satisified through the elimination of the penalty for sin.
Maybe this is some kind of inside joke I'm just not privy to.

And who's to say that God 'owed' anything to those He created. God is God, after all!
And God is above questioning? I've heard this before.

What does responsibility mean to you? How would God be less responsible for sin if He stood by and watched vs. foreknew what would happen and allowed?
So far, we are only talking about cause and effect. But if you want to get on this other topic, I'm willing to do it.

If God created a being to have a love relationship with, risking hate, then justly, God could only watch sin happen if God wanted to avoid being responsible for sin. However, if God foreknew sin, setting up man to sin, then God IS responsible.
 

Yorzhik

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This you know, exactly, how?
Because the meaning of the English words says so. For you to make a comment like this says a lot about how you treat God's word. It says you read the bible and decide what it means based on your own feelings.

I would say God intends for as many to be saved as possible--the Son of Man did not come to seek and to save the established quota...
Maybe there is an established quota, but I'd doubt it. Of course God wants to save as many as possible. The passage doesn't even talk about God's intentions concerning "saving as many as possible."

Yorzhik said:
He's very smart.
lee_merrill said:
If free choices cannot be known even by God, then this is still unknowable.
We cannot know that God is smart if people have a will? That doesn't make sense.

I believe he knows all decisions, such as knowing our prayers we will pray, and then "before they call, I will answer."
Then God is responsible for sin. I don't think God is going to appreciate you blaming Him for sin.

But Rob's point is pertinent, seeing what is imminent and not acting to prevent it involves you in responsibility too--as does knowing what might happen, and choosing to create--so Open Theists have this question to answer too.
See what is imminent is not exhaustive foreknowledge. Now, exhaustive foreknowledge DOES NOT involve you in responsibility too. We've answered the question.

BTW, did you ever answer the kitchen table scenario? Why don't you give it a go?
 

Nang

TOL Subscriber
But if by this you mean that there was only one will that emerged due to a combination of the two natures, then this idea cannot be accepted for it violates the integrity of both natures (that will would not be neither human nor divine but something else), it would go against the Chalcedonian definition, which I am sure you agree with and would also land us straight into the heresy of Monothelitism, who proposed a single will in Christ.


Evo

No, this is not what I meant, but I did not really think this through, so I thank you for emphasizing it for me. And I do not agree with Monothelitism. I was trying to articulate my belief that the will is what motivates a person; including their affections, and Christ only exhibited one solitary heart motive, and that was to subject Himself, body and soul and mind, to the Father. The fact that His affections accord with the divine will does not mean the natures merge in any way, but simply that His human nature was perfect and without sin so they are in harmony, and Christ's actions demonstrate this perfectly.

And he did so by the exercise of faith . . .which is really the application in back of my mind. How does the Christian, who lives in tension, willing to obey God, but struggling with the law of sin that remains in his members, bring his will more in accord with the will and word of God? I can think of no other way to emulate the loving motivation of the Son towards the Father, except through complete trust and rest in His faithfulness and righteousness and ability to conform us to His image, spiritually.

For I do not believe any of the sons of God will ever manage in themselves to perfect their human natures (or wills). Good works will certainly not achieve this! For God looks at the heart; more than the action. How to keep our motives pure? Much prayer and trust in the Holy Spirit to grant us the inner holiness to keep our minds, hearts, and wills, pure.

Thanks for letting me ramble . . .

Nang
 

Evoken

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No, this is not what I meant, but I did not really think this through, so I thank you for emphasizing it for me. And I do not agree with Monothelitism. I was trying to articulate my belief that the will is what motivates a person; including their affections, and Christ only exhibited one solitary heart motive, and that was to subject Himself, body and soul and mind, to the Father. The fact that His affections accord with the divine will does not mean the natures merge in any way, but simply that His human nature was perfect and without sin so they are in harmony, and Christ's actions demonstrate this perfectly.

Well, good to see we agree. :up:


Evo
 

themuzicman

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Nang is usually in line with the creeds and Councils. They did settle on a two will theory for Christ later in church history (divine/human with human subordinate to divine). This is the official orthodox position.

I intuitively lean to Nang's idea of one will. Jesus is one person with two natures, but I have trouble seeing two wills in one person. He submitted His will to the Father, but I wonder why the Councils concluded He has two wills in one person.:cheers:

I think it has to do with preserving the nature of the Trinity, and trying to understand whether God in three persons is always in agreement in their will, and the introduction of this incarnation along with Jesus plea in Gethsemene.

Muz
 

Ask Mr. Religion

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Nang is usually in line with the creeds and Councils. They did settle on a two will theory for Christ later in church history (divine/human with human subordinate to divine). This is the official orthodox position.

I intuitively lean to Nang's idea of one will. Jesus is one person with two natures, but I have trouble seeing two wills in one person. He submitted His will to the Father, but I wonder why the Councils concluded He has two wills in one person.:cheers:
I don't think Nang believes that Christ lacks a human will. The Incarnate Christ must have two wills for he possessed a rational and immortal soul. To have only one will, the divine will, would mean Christ could not be in all things like a man and be able to do the things that pleased God the Father as our surety.

For a discussion of the Incarnation see here.
 

RobE

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If God created a being to have a love relationship with, risking hate, then justly, God could only watch sin happen if God wanted to avoid being responsible for sin. However, if God foreknew sin, setting up man to sin, then God IS responsible.

Then we agree that God allowing sin doesn't impune responsiblity. How does God's foreknown allowance differ in responsibility from God's unforeknown allowance in your mind?

The underlined portion of your statement is untrue. God could have stopped sin without responsiblity. Why didn't he? Your answer should apply to God whether foreknowledge existed or didn't exist. If not, why not?

Your statement 'setting up man to sin' has supporting evidence in scripture considering the location of the tree of knowledge, Lucifer was put in the garden, and the command from God not to eat. However, it might also be said that God simply foreknew the outcome and the evil which Lucifer did freely was used for good by God. Just like the evil that was turned to good in the story of Joseph.
 

Nang

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I don't think Nang believes that Christ lacks a human will. The Incarnate Christ must have two wills for he possessed a rational and immortal soul. To have only one will, the divine will, would mean Christ could not be in all things like a man and be able to do the things that pleased God the Father as our surety.

For a discussion of the Incarnation see here.


Note: I just updated my sig. :eek:
 

RobE

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Originally Posted by RobE
That's right! And ultimate responsibility was taken up with the Cross!

No. I clearly said responsibility was taken up before the foundation of the world, and executed at creation. I cannot imagine what you mean with this statement.

Well, from my perspective that foreknowledge is true. Then the cross and Christ's worthiness were known before the foundation of the world. Jesus Christ's act was the entire point of creation, it's alpha and omega if you prefer.
 

Nang

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Well, from my perspective that foreknowledge is true. Then the cross and Christ's worthiness were known before the foundation of the world. Jesus Christ's act was the entire point of creation, it's alpha and omega if you prefer.


I just hope you are not going to give us a dose of Pierre Teilhard de Chardin!

Are you?

Nang
 

Nick M

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Well, from my perspective that foreknowledge is true. Then the cross and Christ's worthiness were known before the foundation of the world. Jesus Christ's act was the entire point of creation, it's alpha and omega if you prefer.

What if man hadn't fallen? And yes, that is a big what if.
 

Clete

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And what is death to God, who is a spirit, Clete? This is the point you are missing.
God the Son was separated from God the Father. (Matthew 27:46, Mark 15:34, Luke 23:43, John 20:17) Just as all of the righteous dead were so separated while in the grave (i.e. Abraham's bosom, paradise, Hell, Hades, whatever you want to call it).

As I said in my previous post, you were not clear that you were talking about the incarnation, in your posts you were talking about God.
There is no difference. The incarnation was the incarnation of God and all the fullness of the Godhead dwelt with His members and He as the incarnate Christ was and is worthy of all praise and worship.

Now, since God is a spirit (John 4:24), and if spiritual death is as you say a separation from God, what then does it means for God to die? Surely it cannot mean separation from himself, for that is an obvious contradiction.
This question seems to intentionally ignore the Triune nature of God and as such is itself obfuscatory. I do not say that God (i.e. the entire Trinity) died but that God the Son, the second member of the Trinity died in that He was separated from the First Person of the Trinity, God the Father. Separation from God the Father is the very definition of spiritual death.

God, being a spirit also has no composition or parts, so we cannot talk about his "vital functions" ceasing or anything resembling that.
The simplicity of God is a Greek concept not a Biblical one and so even if I, or anyone else, had brought up such a thing as His "vital functions" ceasing, this would not be a Biblically valid argument to refute it. But since no one has brought that up but you, the point is moot.

The only intelligible way a spirit can die (not merely being separated from God which is the state of the damned, but to really die) is to cease to exist, to vanish into nothingness. For God it would be that he would no longer be, the very opposite of who he claims he is (I AM).
If "to cease to exist, to vanish into nothingness" is the correct definition of spiritual death then no one will ever die - ever, including the damned, Satan, or anyone else you can name.

The spiritual death of Adam pertains to a severed relationship of him and the rest of mankind with God, hence why we are born all alienated from God and in need of his grace.
The relationship being a spiritual one.

Thank you for conceding the whole point being debated.

The spiritual death could only be restored through obedience, hence spiritual death in so far as is understood by it a separation from God is actually contrary to the work of redemption for it is the very thing he came to fix.
Could you quote for me in the Bible where it teaches that spiritual death (i.e. I presume you meant spiritual life) is restored by obedience?

And the way He "fixed" it was to go through that death Himself so that we wouldn't have too! The wages of sin is death Evoken. The only way to atone for sin is through death. If you are a sinner you sin can be atoned for in two ways. Either you can die or a sufficient sacrifice can be killed in your stead. Christ (i.e. God the Son) is that sacrifice. Not just His physical body but HIM! John 3:16 does not teach us that God so loved the world that He gave the body of His only begotten Son but rather that He so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son and its a good thing too because that was the only sacrifice that could be made for the salvation of mankind.

I am not sure what you mean with this question, for I was talking about Christ being spiritually dead, which is impossible. But as far as us goes, yes we all are spiritually dead until we receive the grace of God.
So then if people are spiritually dead then how would what Jesus did at the cross fix that if He did not die spiritually? The point of the question was to point out that our condition is more than skin deep. That is to say that a mere physical death on the part of Christ would not have addressed our spiritually dead condition. Our problem is both physical and spiritual and the solution must address both in order to be effective. Otherwise, like I pointed out before, if all God needed was a perfect human being to be sacrificed, He could have just kept on created new Adams until He successfully sacrificed one prior to him having sinned.

It does not says God the Father, it just says God, Lord Jesus is very careful about the words he uses. This is a very important distinction. This is said to fulfill a Messianic prophecy, it is the same saying found in the Psalm: "O God my God, look upon me: why hast thou forsaken me?" (Psalm 21:1) . This chapter is heavy on the fulfillment of several prophesies, this is the context on which things are happening in this chapter. The Psalm 21 closely matches many of the events that take place in the life of Christ, which we see in Matthew 27:

"O God my God, look upon me: why hast thou forsaken me?" (Psalm 21:1)
"My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" (Matthew 27:46)

"He hoped in the Lord, let him deliver him: let him save him, seeing he delighteth in him." (Psalm 21:8)
"He trusted in God; let him now deliver him if he will have him; for he said: I am the Son of God." (Matthew 27:43)

"The council of the malignant hath besieged me. They have dug my hands and feet." (Psalm 21:17)​

A clear parallel with his crucifixion and the trial before the council.

"They parted my garments amongst them; and upon my vesture they cast lots." (Psalm 21:19)
"They divided my garments among them; and upon my vesture they cast lots." (Matthew 27:35)
There is no doubt that Jesus was quoting this Psalm. He quoted the first verse and thereby made referrence to the whole. He was without question stating plainly that He was fulfilling that Psalm (which actually was not a prophesy per se but that's a topic for another thread).
But be that as it may, it is also clear that Jesus was crying out because the one whom He calls "His God", which throughout the gospels is ever and always God the Father, which I think you knew when you suggested otherwise, and so this point about the fulfillment of Scripture is a fair sized red herring. In other words, regardless of how many layers of meaning the passage entails, the primary meaning of the text is what the text plainly states which is, as has been quoted several times now, "My God My God why have You forsaken Me?"

Now what in the world could that mean aside from what it says? Even if you want to insist that Jesus' fulfillment of the Psalm is the primary reading of the text then what did it mean in the Psalm, and what does it mean for Jesus to have fulfilled it except that God the Father had, albeit temporarily, forsaken His only begotten Son?

Now, since Christ is God, then certainly the verse cannot mean that he was forsaken by God, for that is like he being forsaken by himself, which is contradictory.
Again you intentionally ignore the Triune nature of God. Why?
Do you deny that God is three persons, the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit? I can't imagine that you do. Why then repeatedly make these points that completely ignore the fact that I've repeatedly stated that God the Son was separated from God the Father and not from Himself? I really do want to know why you feel like it is valid to make these points over and over again as thought they've not been addressed?

Nor can it mean that he doubted God, for that too would be contradictory, and even if possible, it would amount to a lack of faith which would itself be a sin, but we know that Christ did not sin (Hebrews 4:15, 2 Corinthians 5:21). So, it is clear then both by the context in which the verse is found, by the text of the verse itself and by the very nature of Christ that this is a fulfillment of prophecy and that it does not implies any separation neither from God nor from the Father.
Well we agree that it does not imply it. On the contrary it states it explicitly! I ask again, even granting that the fulfillment of the Psalm is the primary context under which the text should be understood, what would it mean for Christ to be fulfilling that Psalm what it says is not precisely what was going on? If Jesus had not been forsaken by God the Father then what does the phrase "My God My God, why have you forsaken Me?" mean and in what way did Jesus fulfill those words?

Nobody is denying that Lord Jesus descended into Hell, so why are you telling me that you have shown "Biblically that Jesus DESCENDED" into Hell? At death his soul was separated from his body and descended into Hell during the three days he was dead (Matthew 12:40).
Well I must say again, thank you for conceeding the entire point being debated here.

Guess what Evoken! God the Father was not in Hell with Jesus! That's sort of the reason its called Hell and not Heaven.

Forgive my sarcasm Evoken, I really don't mean to be insulting. I'm just trying to drive home the point here. Its as though you have blinders one somehow. How is it that you can acknowledge that Jesus was the Hell (sheoll - the grave - paradise - Abraham's bosom - the abode of the righteous dead, etc, etc, a rose by any other name is still a rose) and not understand that doing so means He was separated from God the Father? The whole reason that such a place existed for the righteous dead was precisely because, prior to their sins having been atoned for, they could not be in the presence of God (i.e. in heaven).

The verses you quoted must be read within the context of the Gospel, the moment at which Lord Jesus descended into Hell was during the three days that his body was at the tomb, while his soul was separated from his body. It was neither before nor after that. Thus it is why it is said that "...neither was he left in hell, neither did his flesh see corruption." (Acts 2:31). His soul descended into Hell, his body did not, it remained at the tomb. For him to go to Abraham's Bosom, he had to die first, like all humans and then, his soul went there to release the just (Matthew 27:52-53).
I left this separated out because I wanted to point out a section of your post with which I completely agree. If I can just get you to see that being in Hell means you are separated from God (in this case God the Father specifically) I think we'll be on our way to some real progress.

Not at all, it is actually what a carefully reading of the Scriptures lead one to. There was no separation of the Father and the Son, there is no Scriptural evidence to support that idea.
The question was a rhetorical one. You can deny it all you like but the fact is that the text DOES NOT say what you want to make it say. It say the HE had not ascended. "Bodily" is your own addition to the text - period.

Lord Jesus affirms plainly throughout the Scriptures his intimate union with the Father and even equates himself with him:

"I and the Father are one" (John 10:30).

"Do you not believe, that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? The words that I speak to you, I speak not of myself. But the Father who abideth in me, he doth the works. Believe you not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me?" (John 14:10-11).

"All things are delivered to me by my Father. And no one knoweth the Son, but the Father: neither doth any one know the Father, but the Son, and he to whom it shall please the Son to reveal him." (Matthew 11:27, Luke 10:22).

From the the beginning (John 1:1-2) to his baptism (Matthew 3:17) to his death (Luke 23:46) at all times the Son was united to God, and since the Father is God, he was likewise united to the Father. You cannot posit a separation of the Son from the Father (or the Holy Ghost or God) without compromising the integrity of Christ's divinity and the Blessed Trinity.
Okay, I'll respond to this yet again. Let's see if you can keep from ignore it this time.

Jesus never ever - ever stopped being God - ever!

Thus the Trinity is still perfectly intact. The is one God who exists in THREE persons - THREE PERSONS. God the Son, the second PERSON of the TRINITY was separated from God the Father in that not only did God the Father forsake the Son while on the cross but as you have clearly conceded, God the Son went to Hell (Abraham's bosom, the place of the righteous dead). When Jesus went there, it wasn't His body that went there but His Soul/Spirit. That is to say, HE went there. He didn't cease to exist nor did He stop being God, He never stopped being the Creator, He never became unworthy of praise or worship or in any other way ceased being the God of all Heaven and Earth. Thus God still existed in THREE distinct persons just as He always had and always will. The only thing that was different is that God the Son was separated from God the Father. The exact nature of that separation is not made clear to us. It seems obvious that it was on a spiritual/relational level but what that means exactly we don't know nor do we need to know. All we need know is that God the Son was killed for our transgressions and that God raised HIM from the DEAD three days later.

Well Clete, according to John 5:19: "...the Son cannot do any thing of himself, but what he seeth the Father doing: for what things soever he doth, these the Son also doth in like manner."

Very simple, the Son cannot descend into Hell until he sees the Father doing it so that he does it as well.
No Evoken. A figure of speech used by Christ not withstanding, it was God the Son who went to Hell not God the Father. If this logic were valid then before Jesus descended from Heaven to become a man God the Father must also have done it. But no, on the contrary, God the Son was SENT (John 8:42) from and by His Father to Earth to die and to descend into Abraham's bosom.

The Son descended into Hell to preach, to release the dead by loosing the sorrows of Hell (Acts 2:24, 1 Peter 3:19), in short to do things, which as the verses above show he cannot do unless the Father does them. The Father and the Son are one in the most intimate way. This verse is also very important for it shows that while God is a Trinity of Persons, he has only one will, not three and thus the three persons act in unity (see also Genesis 1:26, John 1:3).
There is a sense, just like with every other aspect of the Trinity, that God has but one will but there is also a sense in which there is more than one.

Luke 22:41 And He was withdrawn from them about a stone’s throw, and He knelt down and prayed, 42 saying, “Father, if it is Your will, take this cup away from Me; nevertheless not My will, but Yours, be done.”​

God is One in Three and Three in One! That is the doctrine of the Trinity. There are THREE persons within the Trinity Evoken. You seem to want to cling tightly to the unified aspects of the Trinity and ignore the plural aspects. This will not do! Within God, the concepts unity and diversity are EQUALLY ultimate.

If you're interested, read THIS for an explanation as to why this equality between unity and diversity MUST be presupposed in order to maintain a rational worldview. It's written by a Calvinist but the section linked too explains the problem and its solution well even though they mix much of their error in with it. It's as though they get the answer right in spite of themselves.

I am not sure why you mention St. Augustine. Do you think he made up the idea of the three persons acting in unity or of them being one in essence and thus inseparable? You think that he "corrupted" the gospel with "greek philosophy"? Hopefully that is not what you think because going long before he was even born we find that this is precisely what the earliest Christians believed. Here are some examples:
I know for a fact that Augustine corrupted church doctrine with Greek philosophy because of what Austine himself stated about what he believed and why he believed it. The fact that other may have made his same errors before he did doesn't mean that he through his vast influence on Christian doctrine did not bring those Classical beliefs into the church. You one of only a very few people I've ever come across who even hints at denying it. Its just too patently obvious to be denied.

And I brought up Augustine because it is Augustinian theology which you are defending.

The earliest heresies such as the one of Sabellius mentioned in the last quote, who was excommunicated in A.D. 220 as well as the Gnostic sects as lead by the likes of Marcion who proposed a separation in the godhead or some other form of distinction besides the persons were opposed on all fronts in the early Church as being contrary to sound doctrine. St. Augustine didn't make anything up nor did he corrupt anything, he simply followed and like all his predecessors before him, gave fuller expression to the teaching of The Church, not by inventing some new doctrine but by making it more explicit and clearer. Something that became necessary as more heresies emerged.
You've never read Augustine's work have you? You don't have any idea why he became a Christian nor what he based his theology on. I'd quote his own words for you but I'm not going to because I don't want to debate Augustine with you. I don't frankly care about Augustine nor do I care about what some person I've never heard of before thinks is heresy. Your position is unbiblical and while you may find the opinions of men authoritative in matters of doctrine, I do not.

Yes, he died a human death in the fullest sense. The divine nature did not nor could it have died.
Then what died? Exactly.

The Gospel of Clete, perhaps, but not the one we find in Scripture.
I've done very little else but quote Scripture to support my position Evoken, that and repeat myself. It is the Bible that teaches us that God sent His only begotten Son to die for th sins of the world, not me! I mean, I teach that but not because I made it up, I'm simply quoting you the Scripture.

Scripture and reason exclude absolutely the notion of the Son being in any way separated from the Father.
So says you!
Do you really believe that simply making this claim somehow proves your position? Because you've done nothing at all to substantiate it.

In addition to what has been said above, also consider: "Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, nor suffer thy Holy One to see corruption." (Acts 2:27). Why do you think that is if not because he is united with the Father and because he is the same God as Fathers?
Why do I think it is that the Father would not leave the Son in Hell?

Well lets see. Because He didn't need to. Because He loves the Son and has the ability to raise Him from the dead. Because it was His plan all along to raise Him from the dead. Because if Jesus had remained dead, we would all be without hope. Because, because, because! I could probably go on for hours if I sat and thought about it long enough. There's every reason in the world why the Father would not have left His Son in the grave. Gaining victory over DEATH and Hell was pretty much the entire point.

Notice though that none of that requires me to believe that the Father was in Hell! Nor does it require me to deny that Jesus is the same God as God the Father.

Again, at death he gave up his spirit to the Father, no separation occurs at any time.
Again, saying it doesn't make it so.

The only thing I am up against is your own arbitrary opinion which you equate (quite erroneously) with the real sense of Scripture.
In what way is my opinion arbitrary? I've directly quoted Scripture! How is that arbitrarily my opinion? You are the one who throws in "bodily" without any grammatical or contextual reason whatsoever. You are the one who meets my Biblical arguments with the opinions and traditions of mere men.

You are proud of quoting Luther, I wonder if you are aware that he would be dismayed by some of the things you are saying about God?
If Luther where around today, he would be a Calvinist and so I have no doubt that he would be more than dismayed.

I quote ONE single line of Luther - ONE. I quote it because he got it right, not because of who he was or what else he taught. Luther was a rabid anti-Semite who thought it a sin to even attempt to convert a Jew to Christianity and he was also staunchly Augustinian in his theology proper. In other words, Luther was wrong more than he was right and a great many issues and my quoting a single sentence of his should not be taken as an endorsement of his theology. His attitude toward the theological establishment, yes, his theology, certainly not.

If there is anyone who is up against anything here it is you and that is against almost 2,000 years of Christian history and tradition and also against the very Scriptures.
I have repeatedly quoted the Scriptures directly and I couldn't care less about the other.

For you to pompously claim that you don't care anything about the Nicene Creed, a creed that even the most liberal of Christians agree with only shows how drowned you are in delusions of grandeur.
Whatever. I never said I disagreed with it in principle. I merely was saying that I do not hold it to be authoritative in matters of theology or doctrine. If the Bible teaches me something contrary to what some creed states then the creed be damned! I will be persuaded by the Scripture and plain reason and nothing else - period. If the arch angel of God himself came and told me something other than what the Scripture teaches my response would be the same (Gal. 1:8).

I noticed that in other posts you were calling Pentecostals heretics, I am lead to ask, in what grounds do you call them heretics, when you have set yourself outside the bounds of even the most liberal forms of Christianity?
They are heretics because they ignore the gospel of grace, they place themselves under the Mosaic law and claim the promises made to Israel for themselves on that basis, they routinely lie about miracles, they blink old women out of their life's saving selling fake miracles and they lead very sick people to their graves by telling them they are healed when they know for a fact that they are not. They are liars, thieves and murderers and approve of others who do the same.

Clear enough?

I suggest you look yourself in the mirror first before condemning others.
Good advice! :thumb:

If there is something I don't care about it is the personal interpretation of the Scriptures of some random individual (there are over 40,000 personal interpretations and raising), specially when it goes against what has been believed and defended even to the death in the history of Christianity down to the earliest Christians.
I've interpreted nothing Evoken! That's pretty much the entire point! You've done plenty of interpreting but all I've done is quote the Bible and taken it for what if flatly comes right out and says as plain as day! In short all you've said here is that you trust what other people tell you that the Bible says more than your own ability to read.

How is it speculation? Either God is one in three persons or he is three separate gods. Scripture and Reason, remember?
Umm yeah! I remember! Do you?
You should read the portion of that article I linked too above. You are clearly giving way more weight to God's unity than you are His plurality. A mistake that you cannot afford if you want to have a rationally sound worldview that is consistent with Scripture. The two concepts are EQUALLY ultimate.

Your claim that the Son was separated from the Father is not in the Scriptures and is in fact precluded by what is clearly stated in them.
On the contrary, I've directly quoted the Scripture repeatedly. Now you seem to just be pretending like I didn't. What's going on here, Evoken?

How was the Son separated from the Father for three days anyway? Did God become two for a while and then became one again? This makes no sense.
It is not necessary for me to be able to explain the precise nature of the separation nor how it took place. This is what I know. God the Father forsook God the Son. God the Son went to the place of the righteous dead and was raised from the Dead three days later. How all that happened and what it all means I don't know. But my inability to understand the details of how it was done is not an argument against the fact that it was done. Jesus Himself says that He is the One was alive, who was dead and is alive forever more. Jesus said that, not me! I simply quoted Him!

Again, if the Son is separated (keep apart or divide; remove or sever from association) from the Father, then it simply cannot be maintained that there are not three gods but one.
This is just not so! On what basis do you make this assertion? Show me the logic that demands that such a conclusion is necessary? The fact is that this is your doctine and that somehow you think that simply spouting your doctrine with some amount of emotion amount to a sound argument but it does not. Jesus while separated from the Father was still totally God in every sense! Just as God the Father remained fully God while separated from the Son.

Some things may not be explicitly taught in Scripture but they are there implicitly, that is, the facts from which we can draw the conclusion are clearly there. In such a way is that the doctrine of the Trinity (among others) is found in the Scriptures.
I agree with this point completely! So instead of just making unsupported claims show me the argument which is based on clear Scriptural premises that leads one to inexorably conclude that "if the Son is separated (keep apart or divide; remove or sever from association) from the Father, then it simply cannot be maintained that there are not three gods but one."

I guarantee you that if you even try to do that you will only run into the same problems that those who actually argue against the Trinity run into. Try it and see if you don't end up sounding like you are arguing against the doctrine of the Trinity.

God being omnipotent could have redeemed man in any way.
This is typical Catholic/Calvinist (Augustinian) nonsense. God is just Evoken. He could not just magically make sin go away had He decided He wanted to do that. God redeemed man in the ONLY way it was possible to do so.

The incarnation while the most appropriate means for the redemption of man, was not absolutely necessary as a means to redeem man.
So says you. Care to try to prove this one?

Otherwise the redemption would lose it's gratuitousness, mercifulness and lovingness as it would be simply something God was cohered to do.
WHAT?????!!!!
This amounts to your attempt to establish the lunatic position that God could have arbitrarily picked any old way of redeeming mankind but it results in blasphemy.

Guess what Evoken! God did NOT have to do anything to save you. He could have let you burn in Hell forever. Jesus could have called upon God the Father and He would have sent 10,000 legions of angels to rescue Him from the cross and you then you still be in your sin and without hope. Just because God could not have redeemed man any other way does not imply that God was required to redeem man in the first place. God chose to redeem man a great expense to Himself and was not coerced nor compelled to do so in any way other than that of His great love for us.

Now since God, who is infinite demanded full atonement for the offense committed to him, then a sacrifice of infinite value was needed, which only a divine person can provide.
Which is the very foundation of my entire position that it is the divine that had died at Calvary.

This is the reason for the union of Christ's human nature with the divine nature in the person of the Son.
Christ did not have two natures Evoken. He was human but a divine one; His nature was and is and always has been and always will be divine.

It makes Lord Jesus not only fully human and fully God but gives his human nature the infinite value needed for the full atonement by virtue of it's union with the divine nature.
This would sound good if it were at all Biblical and not merely the doctrine of men. Nothing in the Bible suggests that Jesus was anything other than God Himself become flesh.

Who said that human nature is incompatible with the divine?
You did!

"So, the divine nature could not be fused with the human nature, because then the nature Christ assumed was not truly human but something else. (From post 4417)

I believe that we receive grace and become partakers of the divine nature through the Sacraments and also that we become Holy by it. So of course our nature is compatible with the divine!
Then why did you suggest that Jesus would "something else" of God was a divine human being?

That doesn't means however that the incarnation took place either by a transformation of the human nature into the divine nature, an absorption of the human nature into the divine or a fusion between the two natures resulting on a third nature.
You miss the most obvious option, that being that God simply became a human being.

All three of these ideas were advanced by proponents of Monophysitism, a heresy that was condemned very early, and for good reason, for their teaching ended up destroying the integrity of Christ's human nature in such a way that he could not be said to be fully human, but something else.
Something else like God become flesh, you mean?

It also lead to another problem in that if the divine nature became flesh, then not only the Son but also the Father and the Holy Ghost became flesh as there is but one divine nature which all three of them share. Unless, of course, one would like to propose three separate natures, one for each person, which would again lead into Tritheism.
:yawn:

Trinity: One God: THREE distinct persons!

Make up your mind, First you deny that Lord Jesus has two natures and say he is God become man and then below you say that "Jesus was fully human and fully God.". So which one is it?
False dichotomy fallacy.

God was God become flesh. He was not two things simultaniously, He was one thing, the God man, Jesus Christ. He was one person, God the Son and He has one divine nature.

Where did I said that there was a contradiction? It is you who is denying that Lord Jesus has two natures, yet you affirm he has two natures (how else do you understand fully human and fully God, since both things refer to natures?) and argue with me as if I were denying it.
This assumes that God could not become a human being and remain God! God did not take on a second nature he simply took on flesh and remained the exact same person with the exact same character and nature that He had before the incarnation. Jesus Christ is God become flesh. He was, and remains to this day, a divine human being. 'Divine' being that which describes His nature, 'human' being that which describes His flesh.

Well if Clete says it, that makes it so, no?
You know full well that I've never said otherwise. Any point that I make that you want substantiated with Scripture and sound reason, if it hasn't already been, will be upon request.

Did you have a particular point in mind or did you just want to throw this statement in for emotional effect?

In the every Scriptures things are more complicated than that. Simply saying that God the Son became man explains nothing, the very statement raises a plethora of questions that scream for answers.
So now we have to explain what the Bible plainly states in some detail before we accept it as truth? Is that what you are suggesting?

No! I don't have to explain to you how God accomplished the incarnation, nor do I have to explain to you the precise nature of it. All I have to do is quote you the passages of Scripture which state plainly that God became flesh, none of which you deny and then sit back and wait for you to quote all the non-existent passages that say that God had two natures.

It is true that sometimes people tend to make things more complicated than they need to be and thus are lead to erroneous conclusions. But it also true that some people ignore the complexities of a given subject and adopt a naive approach to it that leads to equally erroneous conclusions.
RIGHT! With this point I completely concur! Thus Luther's standard (and mine) "Scripture AND plain reason".

Of course, the body is not what makes a person but the soul/spirit, hence there is another reason why the divine and human natures did not need to be fused together. That the soul/spirit is what makes a person is precisely why it is said that the person of the Son incarnated. It is why it is said that the union took place not in the nature but in the person. and yes, as you say, you (the person) survive your physical death with your memories and personality intact, so too did the person of the Son when the human nature died at the cross, ergo the divine nature did not die.
Now you are arguing my side of the debate! Take the above one sentence at a time...

I do not say that there were two natures fused together.

You and I agree that it is the soul/spirit that makes a person who they are and that it was the person of the Son that incarnated and not the person of the Father. (Sentences 2 &3)

I have never suggested that Jesus did not survive His physical death with His personality and memories intact. In fact I have repeatedly stated the reverse that God the Son remained God the Son even though He was in Hell apart from God the Father. And thus I have repeated stated that God the Son did not die in the sense that He stopped existing as God the Son!

This whole paragraph was written as though our whole conversation never took place!
Why do you do that Evoken? It's extremely irritating and so very very unproductive! Why even waste the time it takes to type all that stuff up?

Resting in Him,
Clete

P.S. I know this was a long post and if you actually ready it all I thank you for that. Please DO NOT feel like you need to respond to it all. Just because I take this much time to respond to each and every point made doesn't mean that I expect you or anyone else to do the same. If you want to respond at all, just pick out whatever you think is most important and we'll focus on that.
 

RobE

New member
What if man hadn't fallen? And yes, that is a big what if.

This is a great question. One which open theists should examine closely. From my perspective, God foreknew man would fall through calculation or because He exists in all times simultaneously and witnessed Adam's act. Therefore, it isn't a valid question to answer from my perspective at all.

So let's answer it from the perspective of open theism.

Here's Adam, Satan, the Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil; all happily existing in harmony. God commanded not to eat of the tree.

Let's look at a few verses from scripture.....

John 3:3 In reply Jesus declared, "I tell you the truth, no one can see the kingdom of God unless he is born again."

4"How can a man be born when he is old?" Nicodemus asked. "Surely he cannot enter a second time into his mother's womb to be born!"

5Jesus answered, "I tell you the truth, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless he is born of water and the Spirit. 6Flesh gives birth to flesh, but the Spirit gives birth to spirit. 7You should not be surprised at my saying, 'You must be born again.' 8The wind blows wherever it pleases. You hear its sound, but you cannot tell where it comes from or where it is going. So it is with everyone born of the Spirit."

1 Peter 1:23 For you have been born again, not of perishable seed, but of imperishable, through the living and enduring word of God.​

1 Timothy 2:14 And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner.

John 12:23 Jesus replied, "The hour has come for the Son of Man to be glorified. 24I tell you the truth, unless a kernel of wheat falls to the ground and dies, it remains only a single seed. But if it dies, it produces many seeds. 25The man who loves his life will lose it, while the man who hates his life in this world will keep it for eternal life. 26Whoever serves me must follow me; and where I am, my servant also will be. My Father will honor the one who serves me.

27"Now my heart is troubled, and what shall I say? 'Father, save me from this hour'? No, it was for this very reason I came to this hour. 28Father, glorify your name!"​

John 12:23Jesus replied, "The hour has come for the Son of Man to be glorified. 24I tell you the truth, unless a kernel of wheat falls to the ground and dies, it remains only a single seed. But if it dies, it produces many seeds. 25The man who loves his life will lose it, while the man who hates his life in this world will keep it for eternal life. 26Whoever serves me must follow me; and where I am, my servant also will be. My Father will honor the one who serves me.

27"Now my heart is troubled, and what shall I say? 'Father, save me from this hour'? No, it was for this very reason I came to this hour. 28Father, glorify your name!"

Then a voice came from heaven, "I have glorified it, and will glorify it again."

1 Corinthians 15:50 I declare to you, brothers, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God, nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable.​

Genesis 1:26 Then God said, "Let us make man in our image, in our likeness, and let them rule over the fish of the sea and the birds of the air, over the livestock, over all the earth, and over all the creatures that move along the ground."

27 So God created man in his own image,
in the image of God he created him;
male and female he created them.

28 God blessed them and said to them, "Be fruitful and increase in number; fill the earth and subdue it. Rule over the fish of the sea and the birds of the air and over every living creature that moves on the ground."

Genesis 3:22 And the LORD God said, "The man has now become like one of us, knowing good and evil. He must not be allowed to reach out his hand and take also from the tree of life and eat, and live forever."​

For open theism Adam remaining righteous of his own accord presents a few problems.

First, the glory of Adam's righteousness wouldn't belong to God.

Romans 11:36

Revelation 4:11 "You are worthy, our Lord and God,
to receive glory and honor and power,
for you created all things,
and by your will they were created
and have their being."​

Second, these scriptures would become untrue: Genesis 1:26 , John 3:6 , 1 Corinthians 15:15 .

For man to be made in God's image required that man obtain the knowledge of good and evil. Flesh begets flesh, Spirit begets spirit. Being born again would become unnecessary. We would also have to cover every argument against Pelagianism.

A note to life, death, and being born again. In order to be born again man must first die to become 'spiritual'. The method of this rebirth is the law.

Romans 7:7 What shall we say, then? Is the law sin? Certainly not! Indeed I would not have known what sin was except through the law. For I would not have known what coveting really was if the law had not said, "Do not covet." 8But sin, seizing the opportunity afforded by the commandment, produced in me every kind of covetous desire. For apart from law, sin is dead. 9Once I was alive apart from law; but when the commandment came, sin sprang to life and I died. 10I found that the very commandment that was intended to bring life actually brought death.
11For sin, seizing the opportunity afforded by the commandment, deceived me, and through the commandment put me to death. 12So then, the law is holy, and the commandment is holy, righteous and good. 13Did that which is good, then, become death to me? By no means! But in order that sin might be recognized as sin, it produced death in me through what was good, so that through the commandment sin might become utterly sinful.

If Adam didn't obtain the knowledge of 'good and evil' then he would have lived on in his flesh and never obtained the necessary spiritual rebirth.

Do you remember the only way to the father?

Third, Adam was commanded to replenish the earth. Wouldn't the law which increased sin in Adam also have worked to do the same in Cain, Eve, Abel, and all the progeny of Adam? Would they all have rejected that sin just as their father Adam had? What's the chance that evil would never enter the world?

Once sin had entered and death become a fact wouldn't the rest of humanity been given new laws by God which would have further increased the chances that Adam would eventually sin during an eternity? Open theism has a very limited view here when it only considers the moment of Adam's decision and not the big picture of creation itself.​

Fourth, open theism fails to see that God was able to stop sin in its tracks through the elimination of Adam, Eve, Satan, or the removal of the law or tree of knowledge. His refusal to do so lends credence to Christ being the plan of creation since the beginning.

I'll stop here since this post is way overlength to begin with.

Your response to these four points, please.
 
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