ECT Unshackled: How Darby Stumbled Upon Dispensational Truth

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Prove that AD 70-ism/Preterism is not "invented," and that you received it directly, via revelation, from God, as you claim.


Not a peep, from the satanic obsessed, habitual liar, as usual.


Fraud.

If only you would learn to read the Bible for all it's worth, you could see. The Bible is 66 love letters etched in heavenly handwriting by the lover of your soul. You need to learn the art and science of biblical interpretation, instead of your usual sophistry, sensationalism, and newspaper theology.

When will you put on the whole armor of God? With it you are invincible, and without it you are a guaranteed casualty.
 

whitestone

Well-known member
The "it" in the verse is their hearts.



There were many Jews who turned to the Lord, and had the veil taken away from their hearts prior to 70AD

it's hard to follow you tet,,,this morning you said the qualifier in the new covenant was whether or not they accepted Jesus as the Messiah ,and that it was "fully in place by ad70" ,,,and now there are some who had received the new covenant before ad70
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
this morning you said the qualifier in the new covenant was whether or not they accepted Jesus as the Messiah or not and that it was "fully in place by ad70"

I never said anything about the NC having a "qualifier".

I did say the NC was fully in place in 70AD, but that's only because the OC disappeared for good in 70AD.

So, the NC was put in place at the cross, but was't fully 100% in place until 70AD because the OC had not faded away completely until 70AD.

The writer of Hebrews explains the overlap of the two covenants:

(Heb 8:13) 3 In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.

,,,and now there are some who had received the new covenant before ad70

See Heb 8:13
 

whitestone

Well-known member
I never said anything about the NC having a "qualifier".

I did say the NC was fully in place in 70AD, but that's only because the OC disappeared for good in 70AD.

So, the NC was put in place at the cross, but was't fully 100% in place until 70AD because the OC had not faded away completely until 70AD.

The writer of Hebrews explains the overlap of the two covenants:

(Heb 8:13) 3 In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.



See Heb 8:13


tet,,,the new covenant is written in their hearts and put in their minds,look how your describing Gods hand writing.
 

whitestone

Well-known member
Tet what about those who were under the new covenant between the cross and ad70 "was it judgment day also for those under the new covenant=ad70"?
 

Danoh

New member
Despite Rabbi Tetenstein's claims, I have no idea who he is or even heard of him before TOL. I read Paul's portion of the Bible after it being skipped over in "sermons" for the longest time. No wonder. I also never heard the term "Mid Acts Dispenational" before here. But the term makes perfect sense. Paul was called Mid Acts and given a Dispensation (administration) of grace for me.

I also don't know Finney, Shank, Bullinger and some other dude whose name is tossed around but in a more positive way.


Your witness as to that is true - though there at times will be similarities here and there; no two people will account the exact same path as to how they arrived at an understanding of one thing or another.

I'm curious, Nick, if you can recall the very first key distinction or two that you made on your own; without anyone having mentioned it beforehand.

Two of mine were what Luke mentions in Acts 2:5, and what he relates Paul mentioned in Acts 22:15.

All I did was sit down (JohnW's advice, I guess, lol) and read the entire book of Acts, simply allowing it to relate its events without an opinion one way or the other.

Hah - good place for this type of question, Nick; for that is exactly what the OP's pdf reveals to the more astute reader as to how Darby was shown the Dispensational Distinction through the Word simply through time in the Word free of the legalism he had sought to better understand only to find in the Word "by...the Word" who he was in Christ.

Note how this type of thing is exactly what others do not get the sense of, thus their off-base "invented" conclusions.

Might as well conclude that Archimedes invented Leverage just because he made observations about how it works based on just that; his objective observations of same.

Or that Newton invented Gravity just because he observed it at work towards codifying what the principles were behind how it worked.

In this, Darby was more or less reading "Things That Differ" before C. R. Stam; that book's author, was even born!

The principles do not change.

Rom 1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:

In between those two is the so called decoder ring some mention in mockery in their ignorance of said in between.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
reveals to the more astute reader as to how Darby was shown the Dispensational Distinction through the Word simply through time in the Word free of the legalism he had sought to better understand only to find in the Word "by...the Word" who he was in Christ.

Nope.

Darby's Dispensationalism is based on a "vision" from a teenage girl.
 

fzappa13

Well-known member
Nope. That neither correct, nor what I was reffering to.

By the way, McDonald was Post-Trib.

You are incorrect. A cottage industry looking for pre-McDonald instances of pretrib preaching sprang up AFTER Dave MacPherson published his painstakingly researched book, "The Rapture Plot". It's not unlike the efforts of evolutionists scurrying about looking for evidence to substantiate that notion AFTER it was hypothesized. :nono:

http://post-trib.net/macpherson/tribpages.html
 

whitestone

Well-known member
You do know the writing on the hearts is a metaphor?

lol,God said he was going to destroy the earth with a flood ,,metaphor? He said he they would be in bondage,metaphor? He said he would bring them out again and dwell in the land,metaphor? He said they would be carried away into/serve under Assyria,Babylon,Persia.Greece,Rome ect.,,metaphor?

lol from the beginning of time until now God said he would do something and he never fulfilled it metaphorically before,,,do you believe what happened in ad70 was a metaphor?,,,do you think he pounded this into the minds of them this whole time and then went ,,,"oh not really it's a metaphor"? is Jesus just a metaphor,,or was it all real?
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
You do know the writing on the hearts is a metaphor?

"The new heavens and new earth is the new covenant...............We live in the new earth, which is the new covenant…. ."-Tellalie Craigie

Flap them big shoes, Craigie the fruity clown.


And get a job, you infidel, instead of sponging off that chunky, war painted "wife" of yours.
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
lol,God said he was going to destroy the earth with a flood ,,metaphor? He said he they would be in bondage,metaphor? He said he would bring them out again and dwell in the land,metaphor? He said they would be carried away into/serve under Assyria,Babylon,Persia.Greece,Rome ect.,,metaphor?

lol from the beginning of time until now God said he would do something and he never fulfilled it metaphorically before,,,do you believe what happened in ad70 was a metaphor?,,,do you think he pounded this into the minds of them this whole time and then went ,,,"oh not really it's a metaphor"? is Jesus just a metaphor,,or was it all real?

Don't you know?:

"The new heavens and new earth is the new covenant...............We live in the new earth, which is the new covenant…. ."-Tellalie Craigie
 

whitestone

Well-known member
Don't you know?:

"The new heavens and new earth is the new covenant...............We live in the new earth, which is the new covenant…. ."-Tellalie Craigie

lol,,I cant see as to how if he thinks judgment day took place in ad70,,,and he has the new covenant prior to it without it being the judgement day for those under the new covenant also. If so then there are two days of the Lord and two judgments,,,one in ad70,and another in (?)...
 

HisServant

New member
lol,,I cant see as to how if he thinks judgment day took place in ad70,,,and he has the new covenant prior to it without it being the judgement day for those under the new covenant also. If so then there are two days of the Lord and two judgments,,,one in ad70,and another in (?)...

Because the judgement was against Israel... and within the context of their culture, the world revolved around them.. if you weren't Jewish you were crap and if the Jews did not exist the world ended.

To the Jews.. their world did end when the temple was destroyed.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
lol,God said he was going to destroy the earth with a flood ,,metaphor? He said he they would be in bondage,metaphor? He said he would bring them out again and dwell in the land,metaphor? He said they would be carried away into/serve under Assyria,Babylon,Persia.Greece,Rome ect.,,metaphor?

lol from the beginning of time until now God said he would do something and he never fulfilled it metaphorically before,,,do you believe what happened in ad70 was a metaphor?,,,do you think he pounded this into the minds of them this whole time and then went ,,,"oh not really it's a metaphor"? is Jesus just a metaphor,,or was it all real?

You've got to be kidding me?

You actually think God literally writes laws on the literal hearts of people?

The heart is a metaphor for the conscience.

The New Covenant is a spiritual covenant. The law is written on the hearts (conscience) of people.
 

Right Divider

Body part
lol,,I cant see as to how if he thinks judgment day took place in ad70,,,and he has the new covenant prior to it without it being the judgement day for those under the new covenant also. If so then there are two days of the Lord and two judgments,,,one in ad70,and another in (?)...
It's all very tetillogical! :think:
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
lol,,I cant see as to how if he thinks judgment day took place in ad70,,,

It wasn't the Judgment Day spoken of in Revelation.

It was judgment against the Jews.

It was Christ Jesus separating the tares from the wheat.

and he has the new covenant prior to it without it being the judgement day for those under the new covenant also.

The NC was put in place at the cross.

The judgment on the unbelieving Jews took place 40 years later in 70AD.

Christ Jesus told us why the judgement would take place on the Jews:

(Luke 19:44) They will dash you to the ground, you and the children within your walls. They will not leave one stone on another, because you did not recognize the time of God’s coming to you.

As we see in Luke 19:44, Christ Jesus foretells the destruction that would happen to the Jews and Jerusalem in 70AD, and He makes it clear why it would happen.

If so then there are two days of the Lord and two judgments,,,one in ad70,and another in (?)...

There was one Day of the Lord, and that was 70AD.

The final Great White Throne Judgment will happen after the second resurrection of the dead.
 
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