Theology Club: The Rapture is Found in the Epistle of James

SaulToPaul 2

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Jerry Shugart said:
Of course he did, as witnessed by what he said here:

"Be patient therefore, brethren, unto the coming of the Lord. Behold, the husbandman waiteth for the precious fruit of the earth, and hath long patience for it, until he receive the early and latter rain. Be ye also patient; stablish your hearts: for the coming of the Lord draweth nigh (eggizo)" (Jas.5:7-8).​

The Greek word translated "draweth nigh" is eggizo and that word means "to be imminent" (A Greek English Lexicon, Liddell & Scott [Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1940], 467).

Paul Sadler, one of the chief spokesmen within the Neo-MAD movement, makes it plain that the rapture is described as being "imminent":

"According to Paul's gospel the Rapture is 'imminent,' that is, it could take place at any moment. There are no signs, times, or seasons that will precede this glorious event" [emphasis mine] (Sadler, "The Present Obsession With the Anti-Christ," The Berean Searchlight, June, 1999, 7).​

There is only one appearing of the Lord Jesus which can be described as being imminent and that is the rapture. So James' words at 5:7-8 are speaking of the Lord Jesus' coming at the rapture.

You refuse to address these things and instead stick your head in the sand.
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So, the husbandman's coming (allegedly the rapture) was taught in the 4 gospels?
 
Jerry Shugart

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
SaulToPaul said:
So, the husbandman's coming (allegedly the rapture) was taught in the 4 gospels?
Click to expand...

I never said that. Why did you not answer any of the points which I raised in my last post to you? Obviously you have no intelligent answers which you can provide.

Are you going to continue to run and hide from these facts:

"Be patient therefore, brethren, unto the coming of the Lord. Behold, the husbandman waiteth for the precious fruit of the earth, and hath long patience for it, until he receive the early and latter rain. Be ye also patient; stablish your hearts: for the coming of the Lord draweth nigh (eggizo)" (Jas.5:7-8).​

The Greek word translated "draweth nigh" is eggizo and that word means "to be imminent" (A Greek English Lexicon, Liddell & Scott [Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1940], 467).

Paul Sadler, one of the chief spokesmen within the Neo-MAD movement, makes it plain that the rapture is described as being "imminent":

"According to Paul's gospel the Rapture is 'imminent,' that is, it could take place at any moment. There are no signs, times, or seasons that will precede this glorious event" [emphasis mine] (Sadler, "The Present Obsession With the Anti-Christ," The Berean Searchlight, June, 1999, 7).

There is only one appearing of the Lord Jesus which can be described as being imminent and that is the rapture. So James' words at 5:7-8 are speaking of the Lord Jesus' coming at the rapture.

You refuse to address these things and instead stick your head in the sand.
 
heir

heir

TOL Subscriber
Danoh said:
Its interesting; though you and I differ on some of the above, even we see these Things That Differ that Jerry has somehow failed to all these decades.
Click to expand...
Jerry doesn't even know what the gospel of Christ is. He constantly confuses it with the gospel of God. :dizzy:
 
SaulToPaul 2

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Jerry Shugart said:
I never said that. Why did you not answer any of the points which I raised in my last post to you? Obviously you have no intelligent answers which you can provide.

Are you going to continue to run and hide from these facts:

"Be patient therefore, brethren, unto the coming of the Lord. Behold, the husbandman waiteth for the precious fruit of the earth, and hath long patience for it, until he receive the early and latter rain. Be ye also patient; stablish your hearts: for the coming of the Lord draweth nigh (eggizo)" (Jas.5:7-8).​

The Greek word translated "draweth nigh" is eggizo and that word means "to be imminent" (A Greek English Lexicon, Liddell & Scott [Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1940], 467).

Paul Sadler, one of the chief spokesmen within the Neo-MAD movement, makes it plain that the rapture is described as being "imminent":

"According to Paul's gospel the Rapture is 'imminent,' that is, it could take place at any moment. There are no signs, times, or seasons that will precede this glorious event" [emphasis mine] (Sadler, "The Present Obsession With the Anti-Christ," The Berean Searchlight, June, 1999, 7).

There is only one appearing of the Lord Jesus which can be described as being imminent and that is the rapture. So James' words at 5:7-8 are speaking of the Lord Jesus' coming at the rapture.

You refuse to address these things and instead stick your head in the sand.
Click to expand...
Is the husbandman's coming (allegedly the rapture) taught in the 4 gospels?
 
SaulToPaul 2

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
heir said:
Jerry doesn't even know what the gospel of Christ is. He constantly confuses it with the gospel of God. :dizzy:
Click to expand...

Yes, the fact that Paul preached the gospel of God as a foundation message throws Jerry off.

The gospel of God is the foundation for both churches in Acts.

:e4e:
 
Jerry Shugart

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
SaulToPaul said:
Is the husbandman's coming (allegedly the rapture) taught in the 4 gospels?
Click to expand...

You must have a point to make since you continue to ask more questions about the husbandman even after I have answered your question about the husbandman in the epistle of James.

I think that you ask another question in the hope that no one will notice that you had nothing intelligent to say in regard to what I said about James 5:7-8.

If you have a point to make about the husbandman's coming in the four gospels then let's hear it. If you refuse to do that then prove that you actually have something intelligent to say about my remarks about James 5:7-8.
 
Jerry Shugart

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
heir said:
Jerry doesn't even know what the gospel of Christ is. He constantly confuses it with the gospel of God. :dizzy:
Click to expand...

Since you consider yourself an expert on the gospel of Christ then you will have no problem answer this question:

When was the gospel of Christ which saved preached to the Jew first?

"For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek" (Ro.1:16).​

Don't disappoint me and refuse to answer, especially since you consider yourself an expert on the gospel of Christ.
 
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SaulToPaul 2

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Jerry Shugart said:
You must have a point to make since you continue to ask more questions about the husbandman even after I have answered your question about the husbandman in the epistle of James.

I think that you ask another question in the hope that no one will notice that you had nothing intelligent to say in regard to what I said about James 5:7-8.

If you have a point to make about the husbandman's coming in the four gospels then let's hear it. If you refuse to do that then prove that you actually have something intelligent to say about my remarks about James 5:7-8.
Click to expand...

Is the husbandman's coming (allegedly the rapture) taught in the 4 gospels?
 
D

Danoh

New member
Jerry Shugart said:
You must have a point to make since you continue to ask more questions about the husbandman even after I have answered your question about the husbandman in the epistle of James.

I think that you ask another question in the hope that no one will notice that you had nothing intelligent to say in regard to what I said about James 5:7-8.

If you have a point to make about the husbandman's coming in the four gospels then let's hear it. If you refuse to do that then prove that you actually have something intelligent to say about my remarks about James 5:7-8.
Click to expand...

It seems Jerry is the only one supposedly richly steeped in MAD who continually fails to see his inability to see what a question asked of him is meant to challenge him to consider things in light of.

Vey few truly consistent Acts 9 Pauline Grace Dispensationalists are ever stumped by the assertions and or questions of others regardless of said other's school of thought.

True consistency in the Mystery, once it is gotten a sound, solid hold of, is meant to result in that high a level of discernment of all things.

Is meant to result in "this mind" that the Apostle Paul often relates in Romans thru Philemon, and that he summarizes in 1 Cor. 2: 15 as "he that is spiritual judgeth all things, yet he himself is judged of no man."
 
SaulToPaul 2

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Jerry Shugart said:
Since you consider yourself an expert on the gospel of Christ then you will have no problem answer this question:

When was the gospel of Christ which saved preached to the Jew first?

"For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek" (Ro.1:16).​

Don't disappoint me and refuse to answer, especially since you consider yourself an expert on the gospel of Christ.
Click to expand...

I answered you a few days ago. I suspect heir's answer will be similar to mine.

http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showpost.php?p=4430308&postcount=333
 
SaulToPaul 2

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Danoh said:
It seems Jerry is the only one supposedly richly steeped in MAD who continually fails to see his inability to see what a question asked of him is meant to challenge him to consider things in light of.

Vey few truly consistent Acts 9 Pauline Grace Dispensationalists are ever stumped by the assertions and or questions of others regardless of said other's school of thought.

True consistency in the Mystery, once it is gotten a sound, solid hold of, is meant to result in that high a level of discernment of all things.

Is meant to result in "this mind" that the Apostle Paul often relates in Romans thru Philemon, and that he summarizes in 1 Cor. 2: 15 as "he that is spiritual judgeth all things, yet he himself is judged of no man."
Click to expand...

Yes, my question was intended to make Jerry stop and think.

If I am not mistaken, he does not believe the rapture was taught in the 4 gospels.
Yet the coming of the husbandman was taught in the 4 gospels.
The same coming James mentions.
 
Jerry Shugart

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
SaulToPaul said:
Yes, my question was intended to make Jerry stop and think.

If I am not mistaken, he does not believe the rapture was taught in the 4 gospels.

Yet the coming of the husbandman was taught in the 4 gospels.
The same coming James mentions.
Click to expand...

Please quote a verse from any of the four gospels which says anything about "the coming of the husbandman."
 
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