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RevTestament

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Well, we can agree the Lord rarely speaks to contemporary churches. I do submit Jesus promised to speak to and through His "disciples indeed" (John 8:31 KJV, John 14:16, 17, 26, Matthew 28:19), and Paul's disciple Ananias was a great example. But, there's no direct Biblical record that Ananias was a priest. All knowledge in His time and in His way. It's hard for me to accept your words, "The scriptures say what they say." Indeed, Scriptures are where we start, and John 14:26 KJV picks up from there.
What I mean is we aren't to change the words given by the Lord just because they aren't understood. Now if we know scribes left out something, or a certain translation is faulty, then we might have authority to correct them. But we aren't to change them or add to them at the whim of men.
Tradition and secular history show that priests attended bishops to the Nicene council three hundred years after Christ.

1 Peter 2:5 Ye also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, an holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.

1 Timothy also makes is quite evident that bishops and deacons were considered priesthood offices.

While I am not sure what priesthood office Ananias held, I am certain he was a member of the priesthood.


How does "the Lord (tell) us that only a certain interpretation is correct"? John 14:16, 17, 26. Jesus' sheep hear His voice. Indeed, there are things hidden in His word, and Jesus touched on this in Matthew 13:10 KJV, Matthew 13:11 KJV speaking exclusively to His disciples. I get the impression many are called, few were chosen. Jesus chooses His disciples and His Father presents them for such purpose.

I basically agree with your statements. I do believe the scriptures have a correct interpretation, but I believe the Lord looks to those who search Him out.
"to this man will I look: him that is poor, and of a contrite spirit and trembleth at my word."

I suggest God is the same yesterday, today, and tomorrow. God's laws, although written in the hearts of those like Noah before Mosaic Law, evolved into written form in the Books of Moses, most particularly. Please consider the Gentiles per Paul in Romans 2:14, 15. As far as the mark of Cain... sure, I know what the mark of Cain was. Surprisingly simple and unsophisticated.
Having a spiritual inner voice telling one that killing his brother is wrong, is not the same as having a written law outlining punishment, etc Under the Mosaic law Adam would have been obligated to stone his son Cain, but that is not the punishment God gave Cain.


I appreciate your sincere testimony, Rev. I'm under the impression anyone who can perform genetic healing miracles of heritable afflictions, as not seen since those days, is of Divine origin. God the Creator of DNA, Jesus the restorer of DNA. Please consider John 9:1, 2, 3, 4, heritable blindness. Please consider Acts 3:1, 2, heritable palsy. Both cases were heritable afflictions. The woman with an issue of blood had heritable hemophilia, and was bleeding to death achieving her first menstrual cycle at the age of twelve. I could go on... but, there's no record of any bones healed. Even leprosy, caused by mycobacterium leprae... one is genetically predisposed as learned recently in the medical community around 2010 as I recall. Dapsone is the typical antibiotic, but those healed by that Rx can certainly get infected again.
There have been miracle healings in the LDS church, but we don't give blessings in front of live TV so as to attract attention.
On a second note, irrefutably 'knowing' Jesus would be at least as well as His disciples knew Him. I'd take that as an acceptable example of objectively knowing who Jesus was. And, we're back to John 8:31 KJV, John 8:32 KJV with John 8:38 KJV and John 8:40 KJV being the two testimonies of these two witnesses (John 8:18 KJV) to Jesus divine Paternity (John 8:12 KJV). Jesus paternity was challenged by those non-Israelite (John 8:33 KJV) impostor Jews (Revelation 2:9, 3:9) in John 8:13, 19, 25, even inherently in John 8:41 KJV among other places.
Those Revelation passages pertain to the future, and not to Jesus' day.

So, Paul's disciple Ananias was a priest? Were all disciples priests? Are all priests disciples, then? Since you mention baptism, I'll touch a bit on that hotly debated notion, momentarily.
Women could be disciples, but not priests, but yes all priests would be "disciples."


Jesus was speaking to His disciples regarding His endeavor preparing for His crucifixion.
I read that differently.
Indeed Jesus spoke of the comforter in John 14:16, 17, 26, and He was speaking again exclusively to His disciples. At the risk of quenching the Sprit, I get the impression the comforter engages disciples. Who then is a disciple? That takes us back to John 8:12-47 with particular emphasis on John 8:30 KJV, John 8:31 KJV, John 8:32 KJV.
I agree wholeheartedly.

Well, I have to give you a lot of credit, Rev! That a pretty good response in my humble opinion. I was hoping to hear more along the lines of what Jesus saw with His father in John 8:38 KJV being Jesus' testimony as an eye witness to an event. Do you think Jesus was the tree of life in the Garden, then?
"I am the vine tree, and ye are the branches."


Agreed certainly that everything is the scriptures is not apparent to man. I think John 14:16, 17, 26 suggests some see more than others as Jesus alluded to in Matthew 13:10, 11 speaking exclusively to His disciples. Were His disciples, priests? Where are all the disciples, today (Matthew 28:19)?
Not all who try to follow Jesus receive the priesthood.
I don't equate disciples and priests.

I'm quite inspired to hear this. I navigated Ephraim's scenario a while back, quite a fascinating journey, indeed. Wasn't Herod an ethnic Gentile? I suspect he was.
Indications are Herod was Arabic, and not a Gentile descended from Javan or Gomer.

Can females be priests?
No.

Luke 2:23 (As it is written in the law of the Lord, Every male that openeth the womb shall be called holy to the Lord;)


I'm of the pretty firm opinion Judah's daughter-in-law Tamar was a Levite priestess. She would have been about the age of Judah's Canaanite sons, and she evidently wasn't from the area where Judah hooked up with a Canaanite wife considering Genesis 38:1, 2, and Genesis 38:11 KJV (Tamar "went and dwelt").
scripture affirming she was a "priestess?"
Appreciating the notion Judah was a lawgiver, then please consider Leviticus 21:9 KJV. Where did that law come from?
Through Moses.
Judah's case with Tamar is the only Biblical record of a female being threatened by fire as Judah suggested in Genesis 38:24 KJV. Consequently, I suggest Tamar was most likely a daughter of Judah's brother Levi. In that case, their eldest twin son Pharez would have received priesthood status as well as lawgiver status. And, Pharez is found in the generations of Jesus (Matthew 1:1, 2, 3; Luke 3:33). I suggest Mary was the second Tamar, btw.
??
Knowledge certainly has it's way of impacting our hearts. With much regard for the twisted rendering of the Law you mention, is there a specific Mosaic Law that comes to mind? I've asked the question several times elsewhere: Was Judah's marriage to a Canaanitess (Genesis 38:2; 1Chronicles 2:3) contrary to Deuteronomy 7:1, 2, 3, affirmed by Ezra 9:1, 2, 7 some 1,400 years later? Then, didn't the lawgiver Judah, prophesied progenitor of Messiah (Isaiah 65:9 KJV), then trespass the Law?
What law? I believe there was no written law for Judah. That came to his descendents hundreds of years later. Thus, Abraham was allowed to marry his half-sister which would have been a violation of the Mosaic law.

Noah sanctioned procreation among Japhethite/Gentiles and Shemite/Semites in Genesis 9:27 KJV. But, Noah separated the Canaanites in the land of Canaan away from the Gentiles and Shemites. No hanky panky with the Canaanites. Please consider Abraham's infamous quest for a wife for Isaac (Genesis 24:3 KJV), and Isaac's and Rebekah's dire concerns for a wife for Jacob (Genesis 27:46 KJV, Genesis 28:1, 2, 3, 4). How could Judah NOT know there was to be no hanky panky with a Canaanite? Can you imagine then Judah's Shelanite descendants (Numbers 26:20) had a bone to pick with Jesus, a descendant of Judah and his daughter-in-law, Tamar? indeed! Listen to their bold proclamation in John 8:33 KJV. Were those Shelanites, Israelites? Were they ancestrally authentic Jews? Was Judah's Canaanite father-in-law Shuah (Genesis 38:2 KJV), son of Abraham's wife Keturah (v. 2 in Genesis 25:1, 2, 3, 4) a Hebrew, then?
Perhaps another time...

Yep, there were most definitely some legal issues going on! The above bears reflection on Paul's mention in Romans 9:6, 7, 8, even Revelation 2:9, 3:9. But, like I said, Mary's ancestry, likely scrubbed from the records, is really quite secondary to Jesus' and His Father's two testimonies to His divinity (John 8:18, John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV). And, Jesus' divine healing miracles speaks volumes, alone.
Yep we are to have faith on His words and those of His chosen witnesses - not secular history etc.


I appreciate your contribution, Rev. And, as I recall, it was your mention of my position being sorta contrary to 'church', and rightfully so in a traditional sense. But, on that notion of baptism you mentioned. I know such is of paramount importance to LDS/Mormons. I though I'd toss a little out, speaking of churches, that you might find my next post less appreciated.
I am happy to address your concerns kayaker
:)
 

kayaker

New member
Performing a proxy baptism is not equal to salvation.

Sorry for my delay responding, Rev. Spilled a $750 cup of coffee on my MacBook Pro! LOL! Anyway...

REV: Performing a proxy baptism is not equal to salvation. Baptism is a necessary ordinance to receive the covenant of our Lord. A deceased spirit can be taught according to 1 Peter 3, and can accept ordinances performed on their behalf, and Jesus Himself, John 5:25. Performing a proxy baptism on their behalf, however, by no means causes them to accept it. If a deceased spirit does not accept the ordinance, they cannot progress in the gospel, and I believe, cannot come forth in the first resurrection. Children under the age of 12 cannot stand in for the deceased. We believe children generally understand the basics of Christianity by age 8, and therefore can be baptized at that point, but we don't allow them to be proxies until age 12.

Jesus’ baptism involved “fire” and “division” that had nothing to do with water (Luke 12:49 KJV, Luke 12:50 KJV, Luke 12:51 KJV). In fact, Jesus’ baptism by fire and division drew ancestral/family lines in rather heated debate (Luke 12:52 KJV, Luke 12:53 KJV; Matthew 26:63 KJV, Matthew 27:11, 12; John 8:13 KJV, John 8:19 KJV, John 8:25 KJV, John 8:37 KJV, John 8:39 KJV, John 8:41 KJV). Even Pilate asked Jesus if Pilate was a Jew (John 18:35 KJV) bearing reflection on Revelation 2:9, 3:9.

Consider Jesus’ words in John 3:3 KJV, and Nicodemus’ response in John 3:4 KJV. Nicodemus was asking Jesus how a Gentile, for instance, can reenter his mother’s womb, break his mother’s amniotic sac again, and be born again as a Jew. Their conversation had nothing to do with water, although water might have been subsequently mentioned in Jesus’ next venue: “After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized” (John 3:22 KJV). I think it’s rather presumptuous to assume water baptism “a necessary ordinance to receive the covenant of our Lord” as LDS/Mormons, Catholics, and other ‘churches’ maintain. Being baptized in the “name” of Jesus involved resolution in His ancestral integrity.

Furthermore, what is “prison” in 1Peter 3:18 KJV, 1Peter 3:19 KJV? To my fallible rendering, “prison” described those who died prior to Jesus’ arrival, people who died under the law. Considering the subsequent verse (1Peter 3:20 KJV), Peter gave a specific example of those “sons of God” (Genesis 5 folk minus Luke 3:38, 37, 36) who hooked-up with the “daughters of men” (Cain) (Genesis 6:2, 3, 4, 5, 6) who died in the precipitated flood (Genesis 6:7 KJV).
So, the LDS/Mormons suggest a 6th grader can stand in and be water baptized on behalf of the deceased. With all due respect, neither our laws, nor do I subscribe to the notion a 6th grader can execute durable power of attorney for health care making end of life decisions for an incapacitated individual on their death bed. In my mind, that’s really a stretch beyond my grasp.

REV: The temple was a type of the true spiritual temple to be built in the future. The brasen sea was used by the priests to wash in to be clean of the blood from the sacrificial atonement.

1 Corinthians 2:8 Which none of the princes of this world knew: for had they known it, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.

It was a type of being washed of our sin or ignorance. This was instituted in the new covenant in the from of baptism, which is why it is referred to as washing our sins, Rev 1:5, and being made clean in Him.

As I said the brasen sea in the temple was a type. The Jews also performed a ceremonial washing, but I do not know when it started.

The priests also washed their clothes, btw (Exodus 19:3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10). In fact, Solomon’s brazen sea was 7.5 feet deep (2Chronicles 4:2 NLT). That’d seem to make water baptisms as much a challenge as baptizing in the deep end of a swimming pool, speaking of water baptisms that weren’t performed until the NT. Interestingly, I thought we were washed IN the blood of Jesus. Moses put blood ON the doorposts in Egypt. LDS/Mormons seem to suggest contemporary priests washed OFF the blood of the Sacrificial Lamb. So, do LDS/Mormons have hope in that baptismal water, or hope in the blood of the Lamb? In other words, do LDS/Mormons even need the blood of the Lamb?

KAY: I heard Solomon lost a kingdom hooking up with strange hotties who worshipped other gods (1Kings 11:1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11).

Rev: You seem to be attempting to impugn God's word because Solomon later sinned.

Well, we might debate the definition of sin, but God/Moses made it pretty clear there was to be no hanky panky with those Canaanites & Co. in Deuteronomy 7:1, 2, 3. Ezra affirmed such marriages as a “great trespass” some 1,400 years later in Ezra 9:1, 2, Ezra 9:7 KJV. God even told Solomon to “...do according to all that I have commanded thee, and shalt observe my statutes and my judgments...” (2Chronicles 7:17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22). Do you have a vested interest cutting the king of polygamy a lot of slack, Rev? Wasn’t the LDS/Mormon prophet Joseph Smith, at the age of about 37, married to a near 15 year old daughter of a pair of his followers, among his 20 or 30 wives?

KAY: That god Molech (aka Milcom, Moloch, etc.) was rather interesting associated with child sacrifice (more momentarily). Note the arm gestures including those of this mother and father (holding a child by the hand in a kneeling, ‘offering’ fashion):

Molech_babylon.jpg


Babylonian cylinder seal representing child sacrifice

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moloch

Don’t those Babylonian arm/hand gestures bear a resemblance to gestures during the Mormon ceremony being the second token of the Aaronic Priesthood?

REV: Not at all. First, they seem to be holding some forms of staffs, tools, etc, which aren't used in the LDS ordinance. You seem to be reacting in a bit of a paranoid way to me. But you should know that I will not disclose the details of covenants I have made.

Sure, I realize you “will not disclose the details of covenants” you have made, Rev. So, a candidate has to buy the package before seeing what’s inside? I just have a little issue with transparency. Here’s a YouTube vid of such a ceremony noting the gestures taught at 47 seconds...

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qmk_CYjow0A


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qmk_CYjow0A

For those more interested:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=J3cudp3E4Oo

So, where in the Bible (King James will be fine) was this gestural ceremony explicitly performed?

REV: The fact that the brasen sea was set upon 12 oxen, and the fact that Solomon put Cherubim in the holy of holies does not mean the children of Israel in any way worshiped them. The fact that the priests were to wash themselves of the blood spilt for all of Israel was represented in the 12 oxen. This is again reflected in the New Jerusalem in Revelation and its 12 gates.

So, LDS/Mormons wash OFF the blood of the Sacrificial Lamb?

KAY: Do you have any Scriptural or secular knowledge the "molten sea" was ever used for religious purposes? My twisted ‘revelation’ suggests it was an indoor jacuzzi for Solomon’s nude foreign hotties, FWIW.

REV: Yes, it does seem to be your twisted revelation.
The sea was for the priests to wash in:

2 Chronicles 4: 6 ¶He made also ten lavers, and put five on the right hand, and five on the left, to wash in them: such things as they offered for the burnt offering they washed in them; but the sea was for the priests to wash in.

LOL! Well, such is a testimony that, as a Matthew 8:20 KJV ‘kayaker’, repenting of Scriptural misgivings and moving forward in His Word is a really simple endeavor. I don’t have to defend or support “church” doctrine. But, do you think if Solomon ‘washed’ his hotties in that brazen sea that would have them acceptable wives? Were Joseph Smith’s multiple wives baptized in the LDS/Mormon brazen sea?

kayaker
 

kayaker

New member
The curse and mark of Cain:

The curse and mark of Cain:

What I mean is we aren't to change the words given by the Lord just because they aren't understood.

REV: What I mean is we aren't to change the words given by the Lord just because they aren't understood. Now if we know scribes left out something, or a certain translation is faulty, then we might have authority to correct them. But we aren't to change them or add to them at the whim of men.
Tradition and secular history show that priests attended bishops to the Nicene council three hundred years after Christ.

1 Peter 2:5 Ye also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, an holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.

1 Timothy also makes is quite evident that bishops and deacons were considered priesthood offices.

While I am not sure what priesthood office Ananias held, I am certain he was a member of the priesthood.

I particularly appreciate the notion “we aren’t to change the words given by the Lord just because they aren’t understood.” The LDS/Mormon prophet Joseph Smith allegedly “translated” an Egyptian scroll which he proclaimed was the lost book of Abraham. Smith’s alleged translation was only 20 years after a fellow in France finally unraveled the language based on the Rosetta stone. The Book of Mormon/Doctrine and Covenants/Pearl of Great Price contains Smith’s alleged Egyptian translation. The following 56 minute YouTube vid refutes Smith’s “translation” skills, and the presenters seem to have provided a pretty thorough analysis despite their bias:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hcyzkd_m6KE

Nonetheless, don’t LDS/Mormon church elders teach that Cain was cursed with black skin, and black skinned people are descendants of Cain, then? That would explain how an LDS/Mormon would have reservation considering other related perspectives, Rev.
"It was well understood by the early elders of the Church that the mark which was placed on Cain and which his posterity inherited was the black skin" (p. 107).

"The Book of Moses informs us that Cain and his descendants were black" (p. 107).
In the meantime, it appears that the curse of Cain still remains on the Negro race even though the Mormon Church extended the Priesthood to them in 1978. According to the published declaration, there is no mention of the curse being removed - for their skin is still dark.
http://www.ldslearning.org/book-of-mormon-curse-of-dark-skin.htm

So, LDS/Mormons think the curse and mark (two different subjects) of Cain was black skin? The curse (merciful not being death) was that Cain would be a fatherless fugitive and vagabond (Genesis 4:12 KJV). And, the mark then veiled cursed Cain so he wouldn’t be found out and killed (Genesis 4:13 KJV, Genesis 4:14 KJV, Genesis 4:15 KJV). The mark afforded Cain the opportunity to now mingle, without fear of being killed, living a very long life dying of old age. However, conjugal visitation was not part of the deal. God set the condition that IF Cain broke parole and procreated while under God’s ‘witness protection plan,’ THEN Cain punched the clock on his NOW execution date: “sevenfold” generations (Genesis 4:15 KJV).

Cain lit out, took a wife, sired a son, and built a city (Genesis 4:16 KJV) taking advantage of God’s mercy (Genesis 4:13 KJV), but with a price. Lamech was the “sevenfold” generation from Eve through Cain (Genesis 4:16, 17, 18), and Lamech executed his relatively young, beloved great...grandfather Cain (Genesis 4:23 KJV). Thereby, Lamech carried out God’s death sentence while Lamech then extended the mark of Cain, anonymity (God’s ‘witness protection plan’), for his children (Genesis 4:22 KJV), Cain’s descendants, for a total of “seventy and sevenfold” generations (Genesis 4:24 KJV). More momentarily.

Talmudic Judaism teaches Ham’s progeny was “smitten with black skin” since Ham had intercourse with his mother (Genesis 9:22 KJV). Furthermore, Talmudic Jews allege Ham also sodomized Noah and castrated him while he was passed out. Nonetheless, sounds to me like the LDS/Mormons are a couple slices short unveiling the curse and mark of Cain... let me know! Unless, that is, only LDS/Mormon ‘church elders’, Smith included, don’t fall under your notion, “But we aren't to change them or add to them at the whim of men.” If anyone was and is to add to His Word, John 14:26 KJV would be just the Guy! Jesus’ sheep hear His Word Rev, and I’m not hearing such in the LDS/Mormons’ pigmentally challenged rendering of Cain’s curse or mark.

KAY: How does "the Lord (tell) us that only a certain interpretation is correct"? John 14:16, 17, 26. Jesus' sheep hear His voice. Indeed, there are things hidden in His word, and Jesus touched on this in Matthew 13:10 KJV, Matthew 13:11 KJV speaking exclusively to His disciples. I get the impression many are called, few were chosen. Jesus chooses His disciples and His Father presents them for such purpose.

REV: I basically agree with your statements. I do believe the scriptures have a correct interpretation, but I believe the Lord looks to those who search Him out.

"to this man will I look: him that is poor, and of a contrite spirit and trembleth at my word."

If I’m not mistaken, you shared that your interpretation doesn’t always agree with fellow LDS/Mormons. With sincere respect, I’ve not met a 100% member of any church. Don’t LDS/Mormons believe the Book of Mormon to be the infallible Word of God? Doesn’t the Book of Mormon maintain Cain was cursed with black skin being the mark, and black skinned folk are the descendants of Cain? Well, when folk embrace renderings from whichever ‘church elders’, further considerations typically fall on deaf ears (Matthew 13:10, 11, 12, 13, 14, Matthew 13:15 KJV, Matthew 13:16, 17).

REV: Having a spiritual inner voice telling one that killing his brother is wrong, is not the same as having a written law outlining punishment, etc Under the Mosaic law Adam would have been obligated to stone his son Cain, but that is not the punishment God gave Cain.

Adam didn’t present the Laws of Moses, but Moses was responsible for writing Genesis. Does that mean virtually anything goes before Mosaic Law? I realize God made certain commandments prior to being written. Do you think Japheth (father of the Gentiles) and Shem (father of the Shemites/Semites) held some written law forbidding incest with Noah’s wife (Genesis 9:22 KJV, Leviticus 18:8 KJV, Leviticus 20:11 KJV, Deuteronomy 22:30 KJV, Deuteronomy 27:20 KJV)? Yet, Japheth (father of the Gentiles) and Shem walked into Noah’s tent covered and backwards (Genesis 9:23 KJV). That was a very bold proclamation since there is at least one ‘thing’ a man can’t do backwards or thru covering, if you catch the drift. The law forbidding incest was written in the hearts of the Gentiles (Romans 2:14 KJV, Romans 2:15 KJV). Paul knew Japheth was the father of the Gentiles, and Paul knew what went down in Noah’s tent (1Corinthians 5:1 KJV). Have the LDS/Mormon church elders figured that one out, yet?

God is consistent in His righteousness before the beginning, and His righteousness outshines man’s concept of righteousness like the sun to a candle... ask Job. Regarding Mosaic Law and Adam stoning Cain... there’s no record Adam witnessed Cain’s act (Deuteronomy 17:6 KJV, Deuteronomy 19:15 KJV). Furthermore, God intervened dealing with Cain head on in the field. Cain premeditated the murder of Abel, killed him in the field, buried Abel’s body, and lied about it (Genesis 4:8, 9, 10). Certainly Eve’s conceptions of Cain and Abel was ‘sorrow greatly multiplied’ (Genesis 3:16 KJV); Eve lost both sons! Cain got ‘life in prison’ (Genesis 4:11 KJV, Genesis 4:12 KJV), which one may look at as ‘solitary confinement,’ but God doesn’t need a co-witness to effect the death penalty. God personally slew Judah’s two Canaanite sons (Genesis 38:6, 7, 8, 9, 10). So, why didn’t God kill Cain?

Clearly Cain’s act was circumstantially known to Adam, ask Eve (Genesis 4:25 KJV). And, Cain got ‘solitary confinement’ (Genesis 4:11 KJV, Genesis 4:12 KJV) with no chance of parole until Cain pleaded mercy (Genesis 4:13 KJV). Cain’s concern was even though he got ‘life in prison,’ someone ELSE (like Adam’s and Eve’s later progeny) would find him out and kill him (Genesis 4:14 KJV). So, God placed Cain under His ‘witness protection program’ (anonymity, the mark of Cain) for “sevenfold” generations (Genesis 4:15 KJV) such that the Sethites would not find out who Cain was and kill him. However, Cain procreating (conjugal visits) was NOT part of the deal (Genesis 4:12 KJV). Not a Sethite, but Cain’s great...grandson Lamech, the “sevenfold” generation from Eve (Genesis 4:15, 16, 17, 18), executed his relatively young, beloved great...grandfather, Cain (Genesis 4:23 KJV). Lamech even named one son Tubal-cain in memoriam to Cain (Genesis 4:22 KJV).

Through executing his young, beloved great...grandfather Cain (Genesis 4:23 KJV), Lamech extended the mark of Cain (Genesis 4:15 KJV), anonymity (which otherwise expired with Lamech’s death), to Lamech’s children, Cain’s descendants (Genesis 4:24 KJV). But, only one of Lamech’s children got a ticket for a cruise, Ham’s wife, who I proffer was Naamah (Genesis 4:22 KJV), grandmother to the king of Babel (Genesis 10:6, 7, 8, 9, 10). It is not inconsequential there are no OT records of their explicit manners of death or longevities of Cain & Co. After Genesis 4:23 KJV, Genesis 4:24 KJV: POOF! Cain’s execution was hidden behind the veil of anonymity (Genesis 4:14 KJV, Genesis 4:15 KJV). Genesis only provided minimum information on a ‘need to know only’ basis... we sorta need help filling in the blanks (John 14:26 KJV). But, who do churches say Lamech killed (Matthew 13:12 KJV, Matthew 13:13 KJV, Matthew 13:14 KJV, Matthew 13:15 KJV, speaking to His disciples Matthew 13:16 KJV)?

Cain and his descendants were protected by Almighty God’s ‘witness protection program,’ anonymity, Genesis 4:15 KJV, Genesis 4:24 KJV. Said veil of anonymity was only lifted momentarily (Matthew 23:30 KJV, Matthew 23:31 KJV, Matthew 23:32 KJV, Matthew 23:33 KJV, Matthew 23:34 KJV, Matthew 23:35 KJV: Who killed Abel?). Lamech was the “sevenfold” generation from Eve, “mother of all living” (Genesis 3:20 KJV), and Jesus was the “seventy and sevenfold” inclusive generation (Genesis 4:24 KJV) from Almighty God... counting from God is generation #1, Adam generation #2, Seth #3, and so forth from Luke 3:38 through Luke 3:23 KJV. Have LDS/Mormon church elders connected the “seventy and sevenfold” dots, yet? FWIW... just the ramblings from a blind wild hawg rooting around for acorns.

Please allow me to continued on my next post...

kayaker
 
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kayaker

New member
REV: There have been miracle healings in the LDS church, but we don't give blessings in front of live TV so as to attract attention.

When you can provide blind copies of before and after DNA tests proving a heritable affliction was healed, render up. You folks ever wean a juvenile with diabetes off insulin? That is, one who tested positive for anti-pancreas antibodies? I know quite a few folk who’d be flocking to the LDS/Mormon church!

KAY: On a second note, irrefutably 'knowing' Jesus would be at least as well as His disciples knew Him. I'd take that as an acceptable example of objectively knowing who Jesus was. And, we're back to John 8:31 KJV, John 8:32 KJV with John 8:38 KJV and John 8:40 KJV being the two testimonies of these two witnesses (John 8:18 KJV) to Jesus divine Paternity (John 8:12 KJV). Jesus paternity was challenged by those non-Israelite (John 8:33 KJV) impostor Jews (Revelation 2:9, 3:9) in John 8:13, 19, 25, even inherently in John 8:41 KJV among other places.

REV: Those Revelation passages pertain to the future, and not to Jesus' day.

After Revelation 3:9 KJV, I find Revelation 3:10 KJV concludes with a futuristic component. And, that’s not saying such ‘revelation’ isn’t available today:

Revelation 3:10 KJV “Because thou hast kept the word of my patience (true Jews v. liar Jews, Revelation 3:9 KJV), I also will keep thee from the hour of temptation, which shall come upon all the world, to try them that dwell upon the earth.”​

Do the LDS/Mormon church elders realize those who instigated Jesus’ crucifixion (John 8:28, John 8:37 KJV. John 11:48, 49, 50, 51) were not Israelite Jews (John 8:33 KJV, John 8:37 KJV, John 8:39 KJV, Luke 3:2, 7, 8, 9; Romans 9:6, 7, 8; Revelation 2:9, 3:9)? They needn’t feel alone... that’s another original rendering from a kayaker.

REV: Women could be disciples, but not priests, but yes all priests would be "disciples."

Assume an Israelite priest’s daughter (like one of Levi’s daughters, as I proffer Tamar was) procreated with an Israelite non-priest (like Judah, the lawgiver). Would their son be a priest, then? I understand the paternalistic (to say the least) LDS/Mormons have a little difficulty with priesthood lineages.

Jesus outlined His door for His believers (John 8:30 KJV) to become Jesus’ “disciples indeed” in John 8:31 KJV. Jesus told His believers, “ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free” (John 8:32 KJV). Said truth to Jesus’ divine Paternity (John 8:12 KJV, John 8:13 KJV, John 8:19 KJV, John 8:25 KJV) was then provided in the explicit and succinct testimonies of Jesus and His Father (John 8:18 KJV). John 8:38 KJV was Jesus’ testimony to His divine Paternity as an eye witness to an event with His Father. John 8:40 KJV was God’s testimony to Jesus’ Paternity, a truth Jesus heard from God that even Abraham didn’t hear.

You’ve given a valiant effort, best yet on TOL in my humble opinion, regarding Jesus’ testimony. But, you stopped short of unveiling
Jesus’ explicit visualization. I asked if Jesus was the Tree of Life in the Garden hoping to hear your notion of what Jesus explicitly saw. I’ve got the part ‘He is the vine...’ What did Jesus explicitly see with His Father? What did Jesus explicitly hear from God? I would expect a ‘disciple indeed’ to be able to explicitly and succinctly expound on those two testimonies. And, I’ve made the statement the LDS/Mormon church has circumvented Jesus’ door into discipleship. The absence of such explicit and succinct rendering of these two testimonies (John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV) suggests to me we have a problem, Houston.

KAY: Indeed Jesus spoke of the comforter in John 14:16, 17, 26, and He was speaking again exclusively to His disciples. At the risk of quenching the Sprit, I get the impression the comforter engages disciples. Who then is a disciple? That takes us back to John 8:12-47 with particular emphasis on John 8:30 KJV, John 8:31 KJV, John 8:32 KJV.

REV: I agree wholeheartedly.

Indeed we do to some extent, Rev. If not by teaching the explicit and succinct details supporting those two testimonies (John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV) to become Jesus’ “disciples indeed” (John 8:31 KJV, Matthew 28:19), this blind wild hawg has to raise an eyebrow at churches, the LDS/Mormon Church, included.

KAY: Well, I have to give you a lot of credit, Rev! That a pretty good response in my humble opinion. I was hoping to hear more along the lines of what Jesus saw with His father in John 8:38 KJV being Jesus' testimony as an eye witness to an event. Do you think Jesus was the tree of life in the Garden, then?

REV: "I am the vine tree, and ye are the branches."

What was Jesus’ explicit and succinct visualization (John 8:38 KJV)?

REV: Not all who try to follow Jesus receive the priesthood.
I don't equate disciples and priests.

I don’t equate priests with being priests today unless they are Jesus’ disciples, first. And, I’m not going to hold my breath waiting on explicit and succinct details of those two testimonies. Consequently, I suggest the LDS/Mormons have a lot of priests that aren’t disciples: believers in priest’s clothing who are not disciples.

KAY: Can females be priests?

REV: No.

Luke 2:23 (As it is written in the law of the Lord, Every male that openeth the womb shall be called holy to the Lord

I suppose that sorta sponsors polygamy. I guess that’s one way to increase church membership, outbreed the rest. Furthermore, Luke was including an inferred reference to Jesus’ conception, Jesus being the first and only begotten of God (Luke 2:16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24). Wasn’t Jesus an Israelite? So, how about a little reflection on that Mosaic Law Luke 2:23 KJV was referring to: God was talking explicitly to His chosen Israelites (Deuteronomy 7:6, 7, 8, 9,10) being the holy priesthood, the “holy seed” (Ezra 9:1, 2) including the “remnant” in Ezra 9:8 KJV that survived the ancestral dilution of Deuteronomy 7:1, 2, 3, Ezra 9:1, 2, 7. The verse Luke 2:23 KJV was referring to the Israelites in Exodus 13:2 KJV, Exodus 13:12 KJV, Numbers 3:13 KJV, Numbers 8:17 KJV. Do you think Mary was an Israelite? Was Tamar? It mattered in Isaiah 65:9 among other places.

KAY: I'm of the pretty firm opinion Judah's daughter-in-law Tamar was a Levite priestess. She would have been about the age of Judah's Canaanite sons, and she evidently wasn't from the area where Judah hooked up with a Canaanite wife considering Genesis 38:1, 2, and Genesis 38:11 KJV (Tamar "went and dwelt").

REV: scripture affirming she was a "priestess?"

Do you have Scripture affirming Paul’s disciple Ananias was a priest? I’ve already provided more circumstantial evidence Tamar was an Israelite priestess daughter of Levi, than you have Ananias was a priest, lol! Do you think Tamar was a Canaanite? Could Jesus just as easily have been the Son of any ole virgin, even a Canaanite virgin descendant of Judah, prophesied progenitor of Messiah (Isaiah 65:9 KJV), and his Canaanitess wife (1Chronicles 2:3; Genesis 38:1, 2)? How about any Scripture, circumstantial or otherwise, revealing who Tamar was?

Judah the lawgiver offered his widowed daughter-in-law Tamar to Er’s Canaanite brother Onan after God slew her Canaanite husband Er (Genesis 38:7, 8). Then God slew Judah’s Canaanite son Onan, Tamar’s second husband (Genesis 38:9, 10). Judah then sent Tamar back to her father’s house (Genesis 38:11 KJV) until Judah’s Canaanite son Shelah came of age. Judah the lawgiver’s actions later became law found in Deuteronomy 25:5, 6 assuring Promised Land was only inherited by an Israelite man. Consequently, Judah at least knew Tamar was an Israelite. And, I think Judah finally figured out his Canaanite sons were NOT eligible husbands for an Israelite wife (Genesis 38:11 KJV, Genesis 38:26 KJV). Tamar wasn’t from the area where Judah hooked up with a Canaanitess wife (Genesis 38:1, 2; 1Chronicles 2:3; Genesis 38:11 KJV, Tamar WENT and dwelt). Daughters were rarely recorded in a paternal society, but Tamar would have been the age of Judah’s brothers’ children. Who do you think Tamar was, then?

KAY: Appreciating the notion Judah was a lawgiver, then please consider Leviticus 21:9 KJV. Where did that law come from?

REV: Through Moses.

Didn’t Moses write Leviticus 21:9 KJV? Didn’t Moses write Genesis 38:24 KJV? Then, Moses knew Tamar was an Israelite priestess, although not explicitly written. Such is one component of being baptized in the ‘name’ of Jesus, His ancestry. Meanwhile, churches do everything with water but walk on it, lol! Well, unless it’s frozen, of course. I understand there are those who propose Cain & Co. survived the flood heading north into snow country hiding in a cave. That’s pretty creative, right? Cain was not immortal, and he would have died of old age prior to the flood had Lamech not remorsefully executed him. Can violated parole: NO conjugal visits. Cain violated parole by procreating (Genesis 4:16, 17, 18) those “daughters of men” who hooked up with the Sethite “sons of God” (Genesis 4:1, 2, Luke 3:38, 37, 36) that precipitated the flood.

KAY: Knowledge certainly has it's way of impacting our hearts. With much regard for the twisted rendering of the Law you mention, is there a specific Mosaic Law that comes to mind? I've asked the question several times elsewhere: Was Judah's marriage to a Canaanitess (Genesis 38:2; 1Chronicles 2:3) contrary to Deuteronomy 7:1, 2, 3, affirmed by Ezra 9:1, 2, 7 some 1,400 years later? Then, didn't the lawgiver Judah, prophesied progenitor of Messiah (Isaiah 65:9 KJV), then trespass the Law?

REV: What law? I believe there was no written law for Judah. That came to his descendents hundreds of years later. Thus, Abraham was allowed to marry his half-sister which would have been a violation of the Mosaic law.

Besides Noah separating the Canaanites in the land of Canaan away from the Japhetite/Gentiles and Shemite/Semites; and, besides Abraham’s infamous quest for a non-Canaanitess wife for Isaac (Genesis 24:3 KJV); and, besides Isaac’s and Rebekah’s dire quest for a non-Canaanitess wife for Jacob (Genesis 27:46 KJV, Genesis 28:1, 2, 3, 4)... not to mention Esau selling his birthright... I beg to disagree, Rev. The law forbidding Canaanite wives was written in Noah’s heart, Abraham’s heart, and the hearts of Isaac, even Judah’s father, Jacob Israel, even in the hearts of the Gentiles. Judah was a lawgiver, but he dropped the ball hooking up with a Canaanitess wife. Nonetheless, Judah’s Canaanite/Shelanite descendants (Numbers 26:20 KJV) had a mission to fulfill: John 8:33 KJV, John 8:37 KJV, John 8:39 KJV, John 10:17, 18, John 11:48, 49, 50, 51, fulfilling Genesis 3:14, 15.

I understand Abraham hooked up with his half-sister contrary to Leviticus 18:9 KJV. Please consider Sarah was even post menopausal (Genesis 18:11 KJV), and the Lord intervened (Genesis 18:13, 14). Please consider Isaac’s cousin-wife Rebekah contrary to Leviticus 18:6 KJV). Rebekah was barren, and the Lord intervened (Genesis 25:21 KJV). Please consider Jacob’s two sister cousin-wives contrary to Leviticus 18:18 KJV). Leah and Rachel were both barren, and the Lord intervened (Genesis 29:31 KJV, Genesis 30:1, 2, 17). That being said, I suspect one might have further reflection on Luke 2:23 KJV that you brought to this table corroborating the notion no females are to be priests. Who opened Sarah’s, Rebekah’s, Rachel’s and Leah’s wombs? Is there any Canaanite blood in the LDS/Mormon priesthood?

God wrote the Law, and only God can change it, and He did intervening in those miraculous conceptions among unions contrary to later laws. God is the same today, yesterday, and tomorrow: No hanky panky with the Canaanites. God intervened killing Tamar’s two Canaanite husbands Er, and Onan. Being Shelah was too young to procreate (Genesis 38:11 KJV), and Judah was a widower (Genesis 38:12 KJV), Tamar’s only choice to continue Judah’s lineage to produce Messiah was by playing the harlot to get pregnant. Tamar’s endeavor was an utterly phenomenal testament of faith risking death by fire (Genesis 38:24 KJV). My bet’s Tamar was an Israelite Priestess, Rev. I can however temper the title in that Tamar didn’t carry out duties as a priest, per se. The question is whether the priesthood lineage could be conferred by the daughter of a priest that got pregnant by a non-priest Israelite. Tamar, the first Mary... God intervened and two Israelite heroines heeded His call. That’s more than I can say about the faith of some of the priests who were no more than sperm donors, btw. “Is anything too hard for the Lord?” (Genesis 18:13, 14).

KAY: ...How could Judah NOT know there was to be no hanky panky with a Canaanite?...

REV: Perhaps another time...

Perhaps, Rev.

KAY: Yep, there were most definitely some legal issues going on! The above bears reflection on Paul's mention in Romans 9:6, 7, 8, even Revelation 2:9, 3:9. But, like I said, Mary's ancestry, likely scrubbed from the records, is really quite secondary to Jesus' and His Father's two testimonies to His divinity (John 8:18, John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV). And, Jesus' divine healing miracles speaks volumes, alone.

REV: Yep we are to have faith on His words and those of His chosen witnesses - not secular history etc.

REV: I am happy to address your concerns kayaker

I admire the notion of having faith in His words and those of His chosen witnesses, speaking of John 8:18 KJV, John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV. I suspect you’re referring to the LDS/Mormon prophet Joseph Smith being a chosen witness among the LDS/Mormon church elders. To each their own, but it sounds to me like churches, the LDS/Mormon Church included, are just a few slices short of the truth on quite a number of issues. Churches are too busy authenticating themselves and confabulating salvation paradigms for their flocks. Churches don’t have time to delve into the weightier issues in Scripture. With all due respect for churches, I think I’ll paddle on in my kayak with the Bible as my map, and the Holy Spirit being my compass. Thank you for addressing my concerns!

kayaker
 
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RevTestament

New member
Sorry for my delay responding, Rev. Spilled a $750 cup of coffee on my MacBook Pro! LOL! Anyway...
Sorry to hear that my friend.
I thought maybe I offended you some way cuz u disappeared.
I myself am looking to get one of those new tablet computers like a Lenovo Helix.

Jesus’ baptism involved “fire” and “division” that had nothing to do with water (Luke 12:49 KJV, Luke 12:50 KJV, Luke 12:51 KJV). In fact, Jesus’ baptism by fire and division drew ancestral/family lines in rather heated debate (Luke 12:52 KJV, Luke 12:53 KJV; Matthew 26:63 KJV, Matthew 27:11, 12; John 8:13 KJV, John 8:19 KJV, John 8:25 KJV, John 8:37 KJV, John 8:39 KJV, John 8:41 KJV). Even Pilate asked Jesus if Pilate was a Jew (John 18:35 KJV) bearing reflection on Revelation 2:9, 3:9.
Jesus was baptized of John in "living" water, ie the river. He didn't baptize his followers. But yes, they later received a baptism of "fire."
Consider Jesus’ words in John 3:3 KJV, and Nicodemus’ response in John 3:4 KJV. Nicodemus was asking Jesus how a Gentile, for instance, can reenter his mother’s womb, break his mother’s amniotic sac again, and be born again as a Jew. Their conversation had nothing to do with water, although water might have been subsequently mentioned in Jesus’ next venue: “After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized” (John 3:22 KJV).
No, their conversation concerned being "born again," and Nicodemus was thinking of being born of a womb again. Jesus' baptism was being born again of Him. Being immersed signified being dunked into the "sea" of the world, and rising out of it clean and repentant in Him - several parts make it clear this also has to do with being resurrected in Him. So I believe those who are not baptized will not come forth in the first resurrection. As I have represented before the baptism of the spirit, was a separate baptism received by the laying on of hands.
I think it’s rather presumptuous to assume water baptism “a necessary ordinance to receive the covenant of our Lord” as LDS/Mormons, Catholics, and other ‘churches’ maintain. Being baptized in the “name” of Jesus involved resolution in His ancestral integrity.
You are of course free to believe how you want.
Furthermore, what is “prison” in 1Peter 3:18 KJV, 1Peter 3:19 KJV? To my fallible rendering, “prison” described those who died prior to Jesus’ arrival, people who died under the law. Considering the subsequent verse (1Peter 3:20 KJV), Peter gave a specific example of those “sons of God” (Genesis 5 folk minus Luke 3:38, 37, 36) who hooked-up with the “daughters of men” (Cain) (Genesis 6:2, 3, 4, 5, 6) who died in the precipitated flood (Genesis 6:7 KJV).
Well, you have prison about right. It signifies those who died without God, who "were sometimes disobedient." Peter is teaching that Jesus went in the spirit to teach them, so that they too could be resurrected with Him if they believed, and says as much Himself in John 5:25. Now the question is, did the thief up on the cross experience this "prison" or is paradise something different?
Note, Jesus did not say he would be resurrected with Him.
So, the LDS/Mormons suggest a 6th grader can stand in and be water baptized on behalf of the deceased. With all due respect, neither our laws, nor do I subscribe to the notion a 6th grader can execute durable power of attorney for health care making end of life decisions for an incapacitated individual on their death bed. In my mind, that’s really a stretch beyond my grasp.
Why does it matter if it is a 6th grader or an 80 yr old person? The person acting as a proxy is not exercising any authority for the deceased. The deceased has to exercise that authority for themselves by accepting the baptism or not.


The priests also washed their clothes, btw (Exodus 19:3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10). In fact, Solomon’s brazen sea was 7.5 feet deep (2Chronicles 4:2 NLT). That’d seem to make water baptisms as much a challenge as baptizing in the deep end of a swimming pool, speaking of water baptisms that weren’t performed until the NT. Interestingly, I thought we were washed IN the blood of Jesus. Moses put blood ON the doorposts in Egypt. LDS/Mormons seem to suggest contemporary priests washed OFF the blood of the Sacrificial Lamb. So, do LDS/Mormons have hope in that baptismal water, or hope in the blood of the Lamb? In other words, do LDS/Mormons even need the blood of the Lamb?
All these things have to do with spiritual vs. temporal Kayaker. Washing garments in the sea so they would be clean "and white." Putting blood on the door lentel was symbolic of the sacrifice of Jesus - you said doorposts. The doorposts support the lentel. The lentel holds open the doorway. May I remind you that Jesus said unto Peter that "when thou shalt be old, thou shalt stretch forth thy hands, and another shall gird thee, and carry thee whither thou wouldest not. This spake he signifying by what death he would glorify God." John 21:18-19.
And yes, LDS Christians need the blood of the lamb - it is a crucial part of the atonement. It is not part of the baptism tho. It has to do with repentance, etc.


Well, we might debate the definition of sin, but God/Moses made it pretty clear there was to be no hanky panky with those Canaanites & Co. in Deuteronomy 7:1, 2, 3. Ezra affirmed such marriages as a “great trespass” some 1,400 years later in Ezra 9:1, 2, Ezra 9:7 KJV. God even told Solomon to “...do according to all that I have commanded thee, and shalt observe my statutes and my judgments...” (2Chronicles 7:17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22). Do you have a vested interest cutting the king of polygamy a lot of slack, Rev? Wasn’t the LDS/Mormon prophet Joseph Smith, at the age of about 37, married to a near 15 year old daughter of a pair of his followers, among his 20 or 30 wives?
Let's make it clear that Solomon did sin - not by taking more than one wife, but in taking many foreign wives who drew his heart away from God and into their idolatrous beliefs. God specifically told kings not to take many wives. Kings tended to marry a lot of foreign wives thinking that would help preserve the peace with their neighbors who were represented as queens. God cared not for this practice. It had little to do with practice of polygamy per se, but with the why, how, and consequences of Solomon's polygamy.

Sure, I realize you “will not disclose the details of covenants” you have made, Rev. So, a candidate has to buy the package before seeing what’s inside? I just have a little issue with transparency. Here’s a YouTube vid of such a ceremony noting the gestures taught at 47 seconds...
I realize those who have lied, have posted secret videos on line. Do you really want to watch the video made by a liar for their supercilious purposes? Why do I call them liars? Because they must represent not to disclose the ordinance to undergo it, but they made the videos with the intent of disclosing it, and they are disclosing it online. Hence they lied to God (as well as the church) - not somewhere I want to be.

Nevertheless, I was talking about the pictures you previously posted. They do not resemble anything close - that I can say, and I did.
So, where in the Bible (King James will be fine) was this gestural ceremony explicitly performed?
Probably nowhere. The Bible only mentions baptisms for the dead. We don't sacrifice bullocks either.

So, LDS/Mormons wash OFF the blood of the Sacrificial Lamb?
Lev 16:26 And he that let go the goat for the scapegoat shall wash his clothes, and bathe his flesh in water, and afterward come into the camp.

27 And the bullock for the sin offering, and the goat for the sin offering, whose blood was brought in to make atonement in the holy place, shall one carry forth without the camp; and they shall burn in the fire their skins, and their flesh, and their dung.

28 And he that burneth them shall wash his clothes, and bathe his flesh in water, and afterward he shall come into the camp.

The priests washed both before and after.
The law of Moses is very specific about the different offerings etc. That will be revealed more as time passes, and the law is completely fulfilled.

LOL! Well, such is a testimony that, as a Matthew 8:20 KJV ‘kayaker’, repenting of Scriptural misgivings and moving forward in His Word is a really simple endeavor. I don’t have to defend or support “church” doctrine. But, do you think if Solomon ‘washed’ his hotties in that brazen sea that would have them acceptable wives? Were Joseph Smith’s multiple wives baptized in the LDS/Mormon brazen sea?
Washing in the sea was undoubtedly a humbling experience for the priests since it was done publicly. You keep painting a rather sordid picture which in my view impugns its scriptural significance. In giving his life for us, Jesus was revealing the significance of these ancient temple practices, and baptism was one of them. I am just pointing out how it fits in with the ancient temple practices. You of course deny any need for any baptism by immersion, so dismiss any connection.
 

RevTestament

New member
I particularly appreciate the notion “we aren’t to change the words given by the Lord just because they aren’t understood.”
Good, but then you go on to totally change the subject:
The LDS/Mormon prophet Joseph Smith allegedly “translated” an Egyptian scroll which he proclaimed was the lost book of Abraham. Smith’s alleged translation was only 20 years after a fellow in France finally unraveled the language based on the Rosetta stone. The Book of Mormon/Doctrine and Covenants/Pearl of Great Price contains Smith’s alleged Egyptian translation. The following 56 minute YouTube vid refutes Smith’s “translation” skills, and the presenters seem to have provided a pretty thorough analysis despite their bias:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hcyzkd_m6KE
There are a lot of "experts" who supposedly "refute" the translation of the Book of Abraham. There is a huge flaw tho. The Book of Abraham didn't come from those papyri in their possession which they are "translating." The Book of Abraham itself came from another scroll later found within the breast of one of the mummies. I don't have a link for you atm, but you can find where Emma Smith talks about this additional scroll which has never resurfaced. The scrolls these experts are looking at are represented in the "facsimiles" published with the Book of Abraham. You may be interested to know things like in facsimile 1, Joseph Smith identified the crocodile as "the idolatrous god of Pharaoh." The experts say that it represents Horus. It just so happens that Horus is the idolatrous god par excellence of the pharaohs and was their companion in the afterlife. The canoptic jars also represented different gods, but these changed over the course of Egyptian history, sometimes representing the sons of Horus. Anyway, the long and short of it is that these "experts" spend a lot of time explaining why these "facsimiles" cannot represent what is in the Book of Abraham. Joseph Smith never said they did. The Book of Abraham doesn't even mention Egyptian idolatrous gods.
Nonetheless, don’t LDS/Mormon church elders teach that Cain was cursed with black skin, and black skinned people are descendants of Cain, then? That would explain how an LDS/Mormon would have reservation considering other related perspectives, Rev.
"It was well understood by the early elders of the Church that the mark which was placed on Cain and which his posterity inherited was the black skin" (p. 107).​
Basically all the members of the LDS church were converts from Protestantism and came into the church with their prejudices, so yes, you can find this as a common teaching in the early LDS church, but it happened to be a Protestant belief. Perhaps even Joseph Smith speculated on it. But there is no clear scripture saying such.

"The Book of Moses informs us that Cain and his descendants were black" (p. 107).
In the meantime, it appears that the curse of Cain still remains on the Negro race even though the Mormon Church extended the Priesthood to them in 1978. According to the published declaration, there is no mention of the curse being removed - for their skin is still dark.
http://www.ldslearning.org/book-of-mormon-curse-of-dark-skin.htm
Unfortunately for that author, the Book of Moses does not inform us that Cain was black or that his descendants were less virtuous in the pre-existence.
Here is what it says:
36 And now thou shalt be cursed from the earth which hath opened her mouth to receive thy brother’s blood from thy hand.

37 When thou tillest the ground it shall not henceforth yield unto thee her strength. A fugitive and a vagabond shalt thou be in the earth.

38 And Cain said unto the Lord: Satan tempted me because of my brother’s flocks. And I was wroth also; for his offering thou didst accept and not mine; my punishment is greater than I can bear.

39 Behold thou hast driven me out this day from the face of the Lord, and from thy face shall I be hid; and I shall be a fugitive and a vagabond in the earth; and it shall come to pass, that he that findeth me will slay me, because of mine iniquities, for these things are not hid from the Lord.

40 And I the Lord said unto him: Whosoever slayeth thee, vengeance shall be taken on him sevenfold. And I the Lord set a mark upon Cain, lest any finding him should kill him.

As you can see nothing there about being black. The curse was a curse of the earth. I have no comment on the mark.

So, LDS/Mormons think the curse and mark (two different subjects) of Cain was black skin? The curse (merciful not being death) was that Cain would be a fatherless fugitive and vagabond (Genesis 4:12 KJV). And, the mark then veiled cursed Cain so he wouldn’t be found out and killed (Genesis 4:13 KJV, Genesis 4:14 KJV, Genesis 4:15 KJV). The mark afforded Cain the opportunity to now mingle, without fear of being killed, living a very long life dying of old age. However, conjugal visitation was not part of the deal. God set the condition that IF Cain broke parole and procreated while under God’s ‘witness protection plan,’ THEN Cain punched the clock on his NOW execution date: “sevenfold” generations (Genesis 4:15 KJV).

Cain lit out, took a wife, sired a son, and built a city (Genesis 4:16 KJV) taking advantage of God’s mercy (Genesis 4:13 KJV), but with a price. Lamech was the “sevenfold” generation from Eve through Cain (Genesis 4:16, 17, 18), and Lamech executed his relatively young, beloved great...grandfather Cain (Genesis 4:23 KJV). Thereby, Lamech carried out God’s death sentence while Lamech then extended the mark of Cain, anonymity (God’s ‘witness protection plan’), for his children (Genesis 4:22 KJV), Cain’s descendants, for a total of “seventy and sevenfold” generations (Genesis 4:24 KJV). More momentarily.
As I inferred, I do not accept the teaching that the mark of Cain was a black skin, etc. I don't care if BY said it or who said it. I don't have to accept it, and I won't unless I am convinced it is scriptural. I have never maintained church leaders are perfect. They never have been. Even Moses disobeyed by smiting the rock rather than speaking to it. Just because church leaders are imperfect tho doesn't mean a church isn't true. Obviously, all of us are afflicted with imperfection. One of the biggest problems men have is wanting to be right. It is often hard for them to accept correction from the Lord.

Talmudic Judaism teaches Ham’s progeny was “smitten with black skin” since Ham had intercourse with his mother (Genesis 9:22 KJV). Furthermore, Talmudic Jews allege Ham also sodomized Noah and castrated him while he was passed out. Nonetheless, sounds to me like the LDS/Mormons are a couple slices short unveiling the curse and mark of Cain... let me know! Unless, that is, only LDS/Mormon ‘church elders’, Smith included, don’t fall under your notion, “But we aren't to change them or add to them at the whim of men.” If anyone was and is to add to His Word, John 14:26 KJV would be just the Guy! Jesus’ sheep hear His Word Rev, and I’m not hearing such in the LDS/Mormons’ pigmentally challenged rendering of Cain’s curse or mark.
While I don't always agree with everything church leaders say, I don't find our scriptures saying anywhere that Cain was turned black, and I don't believe that.
If I’m not mistaken, you shared that your interpretation doesn’t always agree with fellow LDS/Mormons. With sincere respect, I’ve not met a 100% member of any church. Don’t LDS/Mormons believe the Book of Mormon to be the infallible Word of God?
No. Joseph Smith said it was "the most correct book" but it too contained minor imperfections upon publication.
Doesn’t the Book of Mormon maintain Cain was cursed with black skin being the mark, and black skinned folk are the descendants of Cain?
No it doesn't. It attaches no curse with being a "black" person, but rather says blacks and whites are alike unto God. It does talk about Lamanites receiving a "skin of darkness" or blackness, but also says they shall be come "fair and delightsome" again. I believe that has nothing to do with skin pigmentation, but more to do with countenance, etc. Job also speaks this way - of being made black - and becoming outcast, etc.


Adam didn’t present the Laws of Moses, but Moses was responsible for writing Genesis. Does that mean virtually anything goes before Mosaic Law? I realize God made certain commandments prior to being written. Do you think Japheth (father of the Gentiles) and Shem (father of the Shemites/Semites) held some written law forbidding incest with Noah’s wife (Genesis 9:22 KJV, Leviticus 18:8 KJV, Leviticus 20:11 KJV, Deuteronomy 22:30 KJV, Deuteronomy 27:20 KJV)? Yet, Japheth (father of the Gentiles) and Shem walked into Noah’s tent covered and backwards (Genesis 9:23 KJV). That was a very bold proclamation since there is at least one ‘thing’ a man can’t do backwards or thru covering, if you catch the drift. The law forbidding incest was written in the hearts of the Gentiles (Romans 2:14 KJV, Romans 2:15 KJV). Paul knew Japheth was the father of the Gentiles, and Paul knew what went down in Noah’s tent (1Corinthians 5:1 KJV). Have the LDS/Mormon church elders figured that one out, yet?
I do not know whether Adam had any written law. I believe he was the first to receive covenant from God. This was the covenant of works or of the Sabbath - to do the works of God. I do not know what he specifically received that is not given us by scripture. It could well be that the Word given Adam and Eve was preserved orally at the time. nor will I speculate on what went on in Noah's tent.

God is consistent in His righteousness before the beginning, and His righteousness outshines man’s concept of righteousness like the sun to a candle... ask Job.
Yep, that's why Christ is the Sun or Morning Star, and the hosts of heaven are the stars.
Regarding Mosaic Law and Adam stoning Cain... there’s no record Adam witnessed Cain’s act (Deuteronomy 17:6 KJV, Deuteronomy 19:15 KJV). Furthermore, God intervened dealing with Cain head on in the field. Cain premeditated the murder of Abel, killed him in the field, buried Abel’s body, and lied about it (Genesis 4:8, 9, 10). Certainly Eve’s conceptions of Cain and Abel was ‘sorrow greatly multiplied’ (Genesis 3:16 KJV); Eve lost both sons! Cain got ‘life in prison’ (Genesis 4:11 KJV, Genesis 4:12 KJV), which one may look at as ‘solitary confinement,’ but God doesn’t need a co-witness to effect the death penalty. God personally slew Judah’s two Canaanite sons (Genesis 38:6, 7, 8, 9, 10). So, why didn’t God kill Cain?
Good question. Adam and Eve clearly had more sons.
Clearly Cain’s act was circumstantially known to Adam, ask Eve (Genesis 4:25 KJV). And, Cain got ‘solitary confinement’ (Genesis 4:11 KJV, Genesis 4:12 KJV) with no chance of parole until Cain pleaded mercy (Genesis 4:13 KJV). Cain’s concern was even though he got ‘life in prison,’ someone ELSE (like Adam’s and Eve’s later progeny) would find him out and kill him (Genesis 4:14 KJV). So, God placed Cain under His ‘witness protection program’ (anonymity, the mark of Cain) for “sevenfold” generations (Genesis 4:15 KJV) such that the Sethites would not find out who Cain was and kill him. However, Cain procreating (conjugal visits) was NOT part of the deal (Genesis 4:12 KJV). Not a Sethite, but Cain’s great...grandson Lamech, the “sevenfold” generation from Eve (Genesis 4:15, 16, 17, 18), executed his relatively young, beloved great...grandfather, Cain (Genesis 4:23 KJV). Lamech even named one son Tubal-cain in memoriam to Cain (Genesis 4:22 KJV).
Interesting - I will take this under advisement.

Through executing his young, beloved great...grandfather Cain (Genesis 4:23 KJV), Lamech extended the mark of Cain (Genesis 4:15 KJV), anonymity (which otherwise expired with Lamech’s death), to Lamech’s children, Cain’s descendants (Genesis 4:24 KJV). But, only one of Lamech’s children got a ticket for a cruise, Ham’s wife, who I proffer was Naamah (Genesis 4:22 KJV), grandmother to the king of Babel (Genesis 10:6, 7, 8, 9, 10). It is not inconsequential there are no OT records of their explicit manners of death or longevities of Cain & Co. After Genesis 4:23 KJV, Genesis 4:24 KJV: POOF! Cain’s execution was hidden behind the veil of anonymity (Genesis 4:14 KJV, Genesis 4:15 KJV). Genesis only provided minimum information on a ‘need to know only’ basis... we sorta need help filling in the blanks (John 14:26 KJV). But, who do churches say Lamech killed (Matthew 13:12 KJV, Matthew 13:13 KJV, Matthew 13:14 KJV, Matthew 13:15 KJV, speaking to His disciples Matthew 13:16 KJV)?

Cain and his descendants were protected by Almighty God’s ‘witness protection program,’ anonymity, Genesis 4:15 KJV, Genesis 4:24 KJV. Said veil of anonymity was only lifted momentarily (Matthew 23:30 KJV, Matthew 23:31 KJV, Matthew 23:32 KJV, Matthew 23:33 KJV, Matthew 23:34 KJV, Matthew 23:35 KJV: Who killed Abel?). Lamech was the “sevenfold” generation from Eve, “mother of all living” (Genesis 3:20 KJV), and Jesus was the “seventy and sevenfold” inclusive generation (Genesis 4:24 KJV) from Almighty God... counting from God is generation #1, Adam generation #2, Seth #3, and so forth from Luke 3:38 through Luke 3:23 KJV. Have LDS/Mormon church elders connected the “seventy and sevenfold” dots, yet? FWIW... just the ramblings from a blind wild hawg rooting around for acorns.

Please allow me to continued on my next post...

kayaker
So how come both Jesus and Peter place the blame for His crucifixion on the priests and levites? The Jews are clearly blamed. What's more in order for them to return to Jerusalem after Babylon, their Jewish heritage had to be confirmed by Urim and Thummim. Did you note that?
 
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PureX

Well-known member
Your past and present is forgiven. Gone. Only you can do something about your future.

Our thinking must be changed (transformed), What we know in our minds to be true, forms a conviction in our hearts of that truth, that conviction in our hearts translates into action. Renew your thinking. To the way Jesus has demonstrated we are to think.
Amen, brother (or sister).
 

RevTestament

New member
When you can provide blind copies of before and after DNA tests proving a heritable affliction was healed, render up. You folks ever wean a juvenile with diabetes off insulin? That is, one who tested positive for anti-pancreas antibodies? I know quite a few folk who’d be flocking to the LDS/Mormon church!
Well, you could spend a bit of time on LDS.org searching through stories. I've posted several that can be linked to from my signature. But I don't think God wants people going to a church because they want to be healed. He wants to heal them because they have faith and want to serve Him. I've also heard first hand accounts from members which don't appear online - just "little" things like coming back from being dead. But, I will admit I do not know of a "genetic healing." I assume that would be something like being made hearing?

After Revelation 3:9 KJV, I find Revelation 3:10 KJV concludes with a futuristic component. And, that’s not saying such ‘revelation’ isn’t available today:

Revelation 3:10 KJV “Because thou hast kept the word of my patience (true Jews v. liar Jews, Revelation 3:9 KJV), I also will keep thee from the hour of temptation, which shall come upon all the world, to try them that dwell upon the earth.”​
I pose those seven churches represent these women from Isaiah:

Isaiah 4:1 And in that day seven women shall take hold of one man, saying, We will eat our own bread, and wear our own apparel: only let us be called by thy name, to take away our reproach.

Do the LDS/Mormon church elders realize those who instigated Jesus’ crucifixion (John 8:28, John 8:37 KJV. John 11:48, 49, 50, 51) were not Israelite Jews (John 8:33 KJV, John 8:37 KJV, John 8:39 KJV, Luke 3:2, 7, 8, 9; Romans 9:6, 7, 8; Revelation 2:9, 3:9)? They needn’t feel alone... that’s another original rendering from a kayaker.
Then how do you explain both Jesus and Peter place the blame for His crucifixion on the priests and levites? The Jews are clearly blamed. What's more in order for them to return to Jerusalem after Babylon, their Jewish heritage had to be confirmed by Urim and Thummim. Did you note that?
Assume an Israelite priest’s daughter (like one of Levi’s daughters, as I proffer Tamar was) procreated with an Israelite non-priest (like Judah, the lawgiver). Would their son be a priest, then? I understand the paternalistic (to say the least) LDS/Mormons have a little difficulty with priesthood lineages.
For one thing the question is ambiguous. There was a priesthood prior to the Levitical priesthood which one did not have to be a Levite to hold. We have discussed this before - Moses, Jethro, etc. I believe that probably sometime around the Babylonian exile, this priesthood was taken from the Jews. But before that the answer could be yes. By the time of Jesus, the high priest in Jerusalem was a mere appointee of Rome, so the answer would be probably no. This is not to say there wasn't valid priesthood elsewhere tho.

Jesus outlined His door for His believers (John 8:30 KJV) to become Jesus’ “disciples indeed” in John 8:31 KJV. Jesus told His believers, “ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free” (John 8:32 KJV). Said truth to Jesus’ divine Paternity (John 8:12 KJV, John 8:13 KJV, John 8:19 KJV, John 8:25 KJV) was then provided in the explicit and succinct testimonies of Jesus and His Father (John 8:18 KJV). John 8:38 KJV was Jesus’ testimony to His divine Paternity as an eye witness to an event with His Father. John 8:40 KJV was God’s testimony to Jesus’ Paternity, a truth Jesus heard from God that even Abraham didn’t hear.

You’ve given a valiant effort, best yet on TOL in my humble opinion, regarding Jesus’ testimony. But, you stopped short of unveiling
Jesus’ explicit visualization. I asked if Jesus was the Tree of Life in the Garden hoping to hear your notion of what Jesus explicitly saw. I’ve got the part ‘He is the vine...’ What did Jesus explicitly see with His Father? What did Jesus explicitly hear from God? I would expect a ‘disciple indeed’ to be able to explicitly and succinctly expound on those two testimonies. And, I’ve made the statement the LDS/Mormon church has circumvented Jesus’ door into discipleship. The absence of such explicit and succinct rendering of these two testimonies (John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV) suggests to me we have a problem, Houston.
Well thank you for your kind expression, but
I expect you do too in my view. Let me go further. Do you accept that Jesus saw the Father lay down His life for the sheep? Do you accept that the Father lived His name of YHWH, Behold the Hand, Behold the Nail which name Jesus inherited? Do you accept that the Father was about to glorify His name "again" when His only Begotten Son followed Him to the tree? John 12:28 Do you accept that Jesus did all things He saw the Father do? Do you accept that Jesus was made in the express image of the Father? Do you accept that Jesus showed us plainly of the Father up on the tree? Do you accept this notion of the tree of life? Do you accept that except a word die, it abideth alone? John 12:24

Indeed we do to some extent, Rev. If not by teaching the explicit and succinct details supporting those two testimonies (John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV) to become Jesus’ “disciples indeed” (John 8:31 KJV, Matthew 28:19), this blind wild hawg has to raise an eyebrow at churches, the LDS/Mormon Church, included.
Well, as I have pointed out on Clete's paradigm thread, we all tend to follow Jesus and God somewhat imperfectly. The church's role is that of our Mother - to ensure that we are fed the word. It is up to us as individuals to live in or abide that word. I believe what you are intonating to is living the oracles of God, but Hebrews teaches us to live the oracles we must be weaned from the milk, and be willing to accept the meat of the gospel which is for men rather than babes.


What was Jesus’ explicit and succinct visualization (John 8:38 KJV)?
See above. But to a lesser extent it was live His words as best we can. This is far from just accepting His name and thereby "being saved" as is often taught these days. I call this getting to first base. But I think we basically agree on this much.
I don’t equate priests with being priests today unless they are Jesus’ disciples, first. And, I’m not going to hold my breath waiting on explicit and succinct details of those two testimonies. Consequently, I suggest the LDS/Mormons have a lot of priests that aren’t disciples: believers in priest’s clothing who are not disciples.
Well, if you are a "believer" that makes one basically a disciple, but I think I catch your drift. There are certainly LDS who talk the talk, but
don't walk the walk in every day life. But I proffer that most at least try - which is one of the things that initially attracted me to the church. But is Jesus happy with everyone in the church? I proffer no.
D&C 112: 24 Behold, vengeance cometh speedily upon the inhabitants of the earth, a day of wrath, a day of burning, a day of desolation, of weeping, of mourning, and of lamentation; and as a whirlwind it shall come upon all the face of the earth, saith the Lord.
25 And upon my house shall it begin, and from my house shall it go forth, saith the Lord;
26 First among those among you, saith the Lord, who have professed to know my name and have not known me, and have blasphemed against me in the midst of my house, saith the Lord.

Furthermore, Luke was including an inferred reference to Jesus’ conception, Jesus being the first and only begotten of God (Luke 2:16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24). Wasn’t Jesus an Israelite?
yes. He came to His house. He is the mighty One of Jacob. His Father, El Elyon, is the Father of all Spirits tho.

So, how about a little reflection on that Mosaic Law Luke 2:23 KJV was referring to: God was talking explicitly to His chosen Israelites (Deuteronomy 7:6, 7, 8, 9,10) being the holy priesthood, the “holy seed” (Ezra 9:1, 2) including the “remnant” in Ezra 9:8 KJV that survived the ancestral dilution of Deuteronomy 7:1, 2, 3, Ezra 9:1, 2, 7. The verse Luke 2:23 KJV was referring to the Israelites in Exodus 13:2 KJV, Exodus 13:12 KJV, Numbers 3:13 KJV, Numbers 8:17 KJV. Do you think Mary was an Israelite? Was Tamar? It mattered in Isaiah 65:9 among other places.
I'm not sure what Mary you are referring to, but my guess is that all the Marys in the NT are Israelite. This however, doesn't make her a priestess. Were daughters brought to the temple to present them to the Lord?
Sacrifice was the responsibility of the priesthood, and exclusively a male responsibility. I do not know why per se.
But to continue to the next verse in Luke we see that:
23 (As it is written in the law of the Lord, Every male that openeth the womb shall be called holy to the Lord;)
24 And to offer a sacrifice according to that which is said in the law of the Lord, A pair of turtledoves, or two young pigeons.

Do you have Scripture affirming Paul’s disciple Ananias was a priest? I’ve already provided more circumstantial evidence Tamar was an Israelite priestess daughter of Levi, than you have Ananias was a priest, lol!
Paul was instructed to go to Ananias. Ananias laid his hands on Saul who received his sight. Giving blessings of healing is a priesthood function performed this way in Acts. It is substantial evidence that Ananias held the priesthood.
Do you think Tamar was a Canaanite? Could Jesus just as easily have been the Son of any ole virgin, even a Canaanite virgin descendant of Judah, prophesied progenitor of Messiah (Isaiah 65:9 KJV), and his Canaanitess wife (1Chronicles 2:3; Genesis 38:1, 2)?
No, because Judah was the law-giver and therefore as a law-giver, Jesus came of Judah as prophesied in Isaiah 65. As Hebrews points out tho, the law said nothing concerning Judah and the priesthood of Aaron, therefore Jesus held a different priesthood - the same Moses, Jethro, Abraham, and Melchizedek held. One did not have to be a Levite to hold this priesthood - which is where you run into problems with poking at the BoM and the restored priesthood of LDS.

Judah the lawgiver offered his widowed daughter-in-law Tamar to Er’s Canaanite brother Onan after God slew her Canaanite husband Er (Genesis 38:7, 8). Then God slew Judah’s Canaanite son Onan, Tamar’s second husband (Genesis 38:9, 10). Judah then sent Tamar back to her father’s house (Genesis 38:11 KJV) until Judah’s Canaanite son Shelah came of age. Judah the lawgiver’s actions later became law found in Deuteronomy 25:5, 6 assuring Promised Land was only inherited by an Israelite man. Consequently, Judah at least knew Tamar was an Israelite. And, I think Judah finally figured out his Canaanite sons were NOT eligible husbands for an Israelite wife (Genesis 38:11 KJV, Genesis 38:26 KJV). Tamar wasn’t from the area where Judah hooked up with a Canaanitess wife (Genesis 38:1, 2; 1Chronicles 2:3; Genesis 38:11 KJV, Tamar WENT and dwelt). Daughters were rarely recorded in a paternal society, but Tamar would have been the age of Judah’s brothers’ children. Who do you think Tamar was, then?
First, I don't necessarily agree with all your characterizations. I don't think it possible for Judah to have a "Canaanite" son. I believe no matter who Judah took for a wife, their son would be Israelite. As you interpret the law, Jacob's sons could only marry their sisters or their seed would no longer be Israelite. But we see this is not so. Joseph married a woman in Egypt. Yet Ephraim and Manasseh are considered to be tribes of Israel. I'm not sure who all the other brothers married, but I am sure it was someone outside the family of Israel - ie not their sisters. You are very preoccupied with maintaining a "pure" line, but nothing seems smart about that. Did you want Judah to marry his sister so that Jesus could come out of a "pure" Israelite line?

Didn’t Moses write Leviticus 21:9 KJV? Didn’t Moses write Genesis 38:24 KJV? Then, Moses knew Tamar was an Israelite priestess, although not explicitly written. Such is one component of being baptized in the ‘name’ of Jesus, His ancestry.
I don't see that at all. Being baptized in his name is more a component of being baptized in the salvation of YHWH.
Meanwhile, churches do everything with water but walk on it, lol! Well, unless it’s frozen, of course. I understand there are those who propose Cain & Co. survived the flood heading north into snow country hiding in a cave. That’s pretty creative, right? Cain was not immortal, and he would have died of old age prior to the flood had Lamech not remorsefully executed him. Can violated parole: NO conjugal visits. Cain violated parole by procreating (Genesis 4:16, 17, 18) those “daughters of men” who hooked up with the Sethite “sons of God” (Genesis 4:1, 2, Luke 3:38, 37, 36) that precipitated the flood.
I don't see anywhere God prohibited Cain from procreating or denied him the privilege of marrying.

Besides Noah separating the Canaanites in the land of Canaan away from the Japhetite/Gentiles and Shemite/Semites; and, besides Abraham’s infamous quest for a non-Canaanitess wife for Isaac (Genesis 24:3 KJV); and, besides Isaac’s and Rebekah’s dire quest for a non-Canaanitess wife for Jacob (Genesis 27:46 KJV, Genesis 28:1, 2, 3, 4)... not to mention Esau selling his birthright... I beg to disagree, Rev. The law forbidding Canaanite wives was written in Noah’s heart, Abraham’s heart, and the hearts of Isaac, even Judah’s father, Jacob Israel, even in the hearts of the Gentiles. Judah was a lawgiver, but he dropped the ball hooking up with a Canaanitess wife. Nonetheless, Judah’s Canaanite/Shelanite descendants (Numbers 26:20 KJV) had a mission to fulfill: John 8:33 KJV, John 8:37 KJV, John 8:39 KJV, John 10:17, 18, John 11:48, 49, 50, 51, fulfilling Genesis 3:14, 15.
Again, do you propose that Judah marry his sister to avoid have a non-Israelite wife? The problem with Canaan arose only when Canaan went away and worshiped other gods. Most other nations had that problem.
I understand Abraham hooked up with his half-sister contrary to Leviticus 18:9 KJV. Please consider Sarah was even post menopausal (Genesis 18:11 KJV), and the Lord intervened (Genesis 18:13, 14). Please consider Isaac’s cousin-wife Rebekah contrary to Leviticus 18:6 KJV). Rebekah was barren, and the Lord intervened (Genesis 25:21 KJV). Please consider Jacob’s two sister cousin-wives contrary to Leviticus 18:18 KJV). Leah and Rachel were both barren, and the Lord intervened (Genesis 29:31 KJV, Genesis 30:1, 2, 17). That being said, I suspect one might have further reflection on Luke 2:23 KJV that you brought to this table corroborating the notion no females are to be priests. Who opened Sarah’s, Rebekah’s, Rachel’s and Leah’s wombs? Is there any Canaanite blood in the LDS/Mormon priesthood?
I'm sure there is since the Israelites did not kill them all out. We treat all alike unto God, and all are allowed to receive the priesthood, so if one converts, they can receive it. Are there any Canaanite priests in Kayaker's view of the priesthood?

God wrote the Law, and only God can change it, and He did intervening in those miraculous conceptions among unions contrary to later laws. God is the same today, yesterday, and tomorrow: No hanky panky with the Canaanites.
In my view the NT covenant replaced the Black letter of the law, leaving only the spiritual law. Under the spiritual law, a Canaanite convert to Christ is not forbidden.
God intervened killing Tamar’s two Canaanite husbands Er, and Onan.
Onan was not slain because he was "Canaanite" but because he refused to follow the law and raise up seed to his brother.
Being Shelah was too young to procreate (Genesis 38:11 KJV), and Judah was a widower (Genesis 38:12 KJV), Tamar’s only choice to continue Judah’s lineage to produce Messiah was by playing the harlot to get pregnant. Tamar’s endeavor was an utterly phenomenal testament of faith risking death by fire (Genesis 38:24 KJV). My bet’s Tamar was an Israelite Priestess, Rev. I can however temper the title in that Tamar didn’t carry out duties as a priest, per se. The question is whether the priesthood lineage could be conferred by the daughter of a priest that got pregnant by a non-priest Israelite. Tamar, the first Mary... God intervened and two Israelite heroines heeded His call. That’s more than I can say about the faith of some of the priests who were no more than sperm donors, btw. “Is anything too hard for the Lord?” (Genesis 18:13, 14).
Your insistence of having a "pure" line from which Jesus sprang necessitates Judah to marry a sister, and females being priests. I just don't follow that kind of reasoning. It is not taught in the Bible.
I admire the notion of having faith in His words and those of His chosen witnesses, speaking of John 8:18 KJV, John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV. I suspect you’re referring to the LDS/Mormon prophet Joseph Smith being a chosen witness among the LDS/Mormon church elders. To each their own, but it sounds to me like churches, the LDS/Mormon Church included, are just a few slices short of the truth on quite a number of issues. Churches are too busy authenticating themselves and confabulating salvation paradigms for their flocks. Churches don’t have time to delve into the weightier issues in Scripture. With all due respect for churches, I think I’ll paddle on in my kayak with the Bible as my map, and the Holy Spirit being my compass. Thank you for addressing my concerns!
So in your interpretation of the Spirit, Judah had to marry his sister, as well as his other brothers, etc down through all their progeny? That's quite a view there Kayaker. The Spirit doesn't show me that at all. I'm sure they married outside of the family all the time.

I wasn't actually referring to Joseph Smith as one of those witnesses, but I do believe he was. He too was an imperfect person and had his foibles, but he was a chosen vessel none the less, and the Lord did speak through him. As He will through the 2 witnesses, etc until His mystery is finished. What do you say to that? Do you think the Lord will speak through the 2 witnesses of Revelation 11?
 
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kayaker

New member
Sorry to hear that my friend.
I thought maybe I offended you some way cuz u disappeared.
I myself am looking to get one of those new tablet computers like a Lenovo Helix.

Thanks, friend. The tablets are real portable! I have preferences and dislikes of both the Lenovo and the Apple. I far prefer MS Word over Apples Pages! But, can add MS word onto the Apple. The Apple doesn't have a "delete" button making word processing slightly more arduous than the Lenovo. Yet, the Apple is virtually virus free, and I've spent plenty previously dealing with that thorn on non-Apple machines.

KAY: Jesus’ baptism involved “fire” and “division” that had nothing to do with water (Luke 12:49 KJV, Luke 12:50 KJV, Luke 12:51 KJV). In fact, Jesus’ baptism by fire and division drew ancestral/family lines in rather heated debate (Luke 12:52 KJV, Luke 12:53 KJV; Matthew 26:63 KJV, Matthew 27:11, 12; John 8:13 KJV, John 8:19 KJV, John 8:25 KJV, John 8:37 KJV, John 8:39 KJV, John 8:41 KJV). Even Pilate asked Jesus if Pilate was a Jew (John 18:35 KJV) bearing reflection on Revelation 2:9, 3:9.

REV: Jesus was baptized of John in "living" water, ie the river. He didn't baptize his followers. But yes, they later received a baptism of "fire."

So LDS baptize in Solomon’s brazen sea, and Jesus was baptized in “living water.” I just hear a little incongruence. That’s because the OT priests weren’t baptizing the Israelites in that brazen sea. My impression is baptism by fire inspired ancestral delineation, “division” (Luke 12:49, 50, 51, 52, 53). What is the LDS impression of the “division” brought about by Jesus’ baptism by fire? We both likely agree such was accomplished at Pentecost (Acts 2:1, 2, 3, 4). Then, where’s the division at Pentecost, Rev?

Early in his ministry, Peter first denied the Holy Spirit not standing and preaching the inspired Gospel (Acts 2:14 KJV). Secondly, Peter denied the Holy Ghost preaching another gospel to those mockers (Acts 2:13 KJV) beginning in Acts 2:22 KJV. Thirdly, Peter denied the Holy Ghost addressing those mockers (Acts 2:13 KJV), who clearly heard the message (Acts 2:8 KJV), that included those who were NOT lost sheep of the house of Israel to whom Jesus was sent (Matthew 10:6 KJV, Matthew 15:22, 23, 24; John 20:19, 20, 21).

The lost sheep were predominately the fatherless Pharzite and Zarhite descendants of Judah via Tamar (Genesis 38:26, 29, 30). Jesus was a descendant of Pharez (Matthew 1:1, 2, 3; Luke 3:33). Jesus’ mere presence ‘legitimized’ Judah’s descendants via Tamar; but, I don’t think Judah’s Shelanite descendants were too happy about their now ‘illegitimate’ disposition. With sincere respect Rev, you simply haven’t figured out those non-Israelite ‘Jews’ who instigated Jesus’ crucifixion were “Abraham’s seed” via Keturah (John 8:33 KJV, John 8:37 KJV), they just weren’t “Abraham’s children” (John 8:39 KJV; Genesis 25:1, 2, 3, 4; Luke 3:2, 7, 8, 9; Romans 9:6 KJV, Romans 9:7 KJV, Revelation 2:9, 3:9). Wasn’t Judah’s Canaanite father-in-law Shuah (Genesis 38:1, 2), a ‘son’ of Keturah (Genesis 25:2)? Didn’t Judah’s Canaanite son Shelah survive to procreate (Genesis 38:6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 26)?

Jesus couldn’t legally be Messiah since He was a descendant of Judah and his set-aside (Genesis 38:11 KJV), widowed daughter-in-law Tamar contrary to Leviticus 18:15 KJV, Leviticus 20:12 KJV, Leviticus 21:7, 9, 13, 14...

Wasn’t Abraham married to Keturah (Genesis 25:1 KJV)? Wasn’t Judah’s Canaanitess mate his wife (1Chronicles 2:3; Genesis 38:2, 12)? So, there’s the ancestral division at Pentecost, Rev. Does the covenant of marriage between an Israelite and a Canaanite conflict with Abraham’s infamous quest for a non-Canaanitess wife for Isaac (Genesis 24:3 KJV), contrary to Isaac’s and Rebekah’s dire quest for a non-Canaanitess wife for Jacob (Genesis 27:46, 28:1, 2, 3, 4), and contrary to Deuteronomy 7:1, 2, 3; Ezra 9:1, 2, 7... does the covenant of a trespassed marriage between a Hebrew/Israelite and a Canaanite overrule Jesus’ ancestry that was contrary to the aforementioned laws of Leviticus 18:15, 20:12, 21:7, 9, 13, 14 KJV? Those non-Israelites seeking Jesus’ crucifixion though so: John 8:13 KJV, John 8:19, 25, John 8:41 KJV. Do you or other LDS (or any other church, for that matter) have another notion of Jesus’ incendiary baptism bringing about division at Pentecost?

KAY: Consider Jesus’ words in John 3:3 KJV, and Nicodemus’ response in John 3:4 KJV. Nicodemus was asking Jesus how a Gentile, for instance, can reenter his mother’s womb, break his mother’s amniotic sac again, and be born again as a Jew. Their conversation had nothing to do with water, although water might have been subsequently mentioned in Jesus’ next venue: “After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized” (John 3:22 KJV).

REV: No, their conversation concerned being "born again," and Nicodemus was thinking of being born of a womb again. Jesus' baptism was being born again of Him. Being immersed signified being dunked into the "sea" of the world, and rising out of it clean and repentant in Him - several parts make it clear this also has to do with being resurrected in Him. So I believe those who are not baptized will not come forth in the first resurrection. As I have represented before the baptism of the spirit, was a separate baptism received by the laying on of hands.

Do LDS consider Jesus’ words in John 3:5 KJV, John 3:6 KJV referring to being dunked? I gather Jesus was reiterating Nicodemus’ flesh re-birth scenario with utterly no mention of baptism, or baptismal water. I do appreciate the notion of laying on hands being another form of baptism. And, that’s what disciple Annanias did to Paul in Acts 9:17 KJV, Act 9:18 KJV that had nothing to do with water. Paul received knowledge of the ancestral authenticity of Jesus from disciple Ananias who was likely either present in John 8:30 KJV, John 8:31 KJV, John 8:32 KJV, or present at Pentecost.

KAY: Furthermore, what is “prison” in 1Peter 3:18 KJV, 1Peter 3:19 KJV? To my fallible rendering, “prison” described those who died prior to Jesus’ arrival, people who died under the law. Considering the subsequent verse (1Peter 3:20 KJV), Peter gave a specific example of those “sons of God” (Genesis 5 folk minus Luke 3:38, 37, 36) who hooked-up with the “daughters of men” (Cain) (Genesis 6:2, 3, 4, 5, 6) who died in the precipitated flood (Genesis 6:7 KJV).

REV: Well, you have prison about right. It signifies those who died without God, who "were sometimes disobedient." Peter is teaching that Jesus went in the spirit to teach them, so that they too could be resurrected with Him if they believed, and says as much Himself in John 5:25. Now the question is, did the thief up on the cross experience this "prison" or is paradise something different?
Note, Jesus did not say he would be resurrected with Him.

I don’t necessarily know they died without God, Rev. They died in disobedience. Peter was talking about the disobedient “sons of God” who died in the flood. Precipitating the flood, the “sons of God (Sethites) saw the daughters of men (Cain’s daughters) that they were fair; and they took them wives all of which they chose” (Genesis 6:2 KJV). Did Solomon die without God? Or, did Solomon die in disobedience? Solomon died in disobedience hooking up with those “strange wives” contrary to Deuteronomy 7:1, 2, 3; Ezra 9:1, 2, 7. Following Solomon’s worship of other gods, did Solomon die without God? After he died, was Solomon in prison, or was Solomon in paradise?

As far as the dude on the cross, Jesus’ Spirit left His body on the cross that same day. The dude died after Jesus did. So, I have the impression the dude never saw “prison.” Peter was talking about “prison” where I suggest those “sons of God” were at who hooked up with the daughters of Cain. Those “sons of God” were sorta stuck in the same place Cain was after Lamech executed him: prison awaiting Judgment. Jesus went in the Spirit to speak to those “sons of God” as Peter gave example, and I suspect they wound up in paradise like the dude on the cross. But, I doubt Cain did. So, I don’t perceive the dude on the cross saw “prison,” he saw paradise. The other dude on the cross might have seen prison.

I suggest you’re considering John 5:25 KJV a little prematurely, Rev. Consider a few verses later in John 5:28 KJV, John 5:29 KJV, John 5:30 KJV. Sounds to me like not everyone in prison will receive the “resurrection of life”. Jesus didn’t say anything about baptism of the dead. If I recall correctly, your position is that baptism of the dead by proxy doesn’t guarantee eternal life. Then, what’s the point of baptizing the dead by proxy? Said baptism makes the dead, sinless? Sounds to me like Jesus is the One who makes that decision in those verses, even today. And, water baptism had nothing to do with His judgment.

REV: Why does it matter if it is a 6th grader or an 80 yr old person? The person acting as a proxy is not exercising any authority for the deceased. The deceased has to exercise that authority for themselves by accepting the baptism or not.

It makes a very big difference, Rev. A sixth grader? Seriously? Is the octogenarian demented? Why not infants, then? Are 6th graders asked? They are de facto participants, not manikins. That must be pretty exalting for a naïve 6th grader!

REV: And yes, LDS Christians need the blood of the lamb - it is a crucial part of the atonement. It is not part of the baptism tho. It has to do with repentance, etc.

Please correct me if I’m mistaken, but I got a different impression that LDS baptism washed away sin or ignorance. Since I proclaim the blood of the Lamb, and ‘put on Christ,’ what does water baptism offer more than a public declaration of faith? Were the OT priests making a public declaration of faith washing themselves and their clothes in Solomon’s brazen sea? It wasn’t the priests that reconciled Israel, it was the sacrifice.

REV: Let's make it clear that Solomon did sin - not by taking more than one wife, but in taking many foreign wives who drew his heart away from God and into their idolatrous beliefs.

Like I said, we can debate the definition of sin. God/Moses made it perfectly clear, no hanky panky with Canaanites & Co. in Deuteronomy 7:1, 2, 3, 4, “neither shalt thou make marriages with them... For they will turn away thy son from following me, that they may serve other gods: so will the anger of the Lord be kindled against you, and destroy thee suddenly.” Consider Deuteronomy 23:3, 6. What was going on before the flood (Genesis 6:1, 2, 3, 4, Matthew 24:36, 37, 38, 39)? Such was on the Books long before Solomon took office! Ezra reiterated that law some 1,400 years later, Rev: Ezra 9:1, 2, referring to such infraction as a “great trespass” in Ezra 9:7 KJV. Solomon was guilty of a “great trespass” en masse before he even started worshipping other gods.

REV: I realize those who have lied, have posted secret videos on line. Do you really want to watch the video made by a liar for their supercilious purposes? Why do I call them liars? Because they must represent not to disclose the ordinance to undergo it, but they made the videos with the intent of disclosing it, and they are disclosing it online. Hence they lied to God (as well as the church) - not somewhere I want to be.

Nevertheless, I was talking about the pictures you previously posted. They do not resemble anything close - that I can say, and I did.

Well, Rev... maybe those folk who post vids of LDS/Mormon ceremonies feel they’ve been lied to. What’s the problem with transparency? Scrutiny? Those LDS/Mormon ceremonies bear a striking resemblance to Masonic ceremonies, of which Joseph Smith was a member, btw:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6udew9axmdM

KAY: So, where in the Bible (King James will be fine) was this gestural ceremony explicitly performed?

REV: Probably nowhere. The Bible only mentions baptisms for the dead. We don't sacrifice bullocks either.

There is no Biblical account of the gestural ceremonies performed by the LDS to my knowledge. Most particularly, there is no account such ceremonies were associated with actual NT water baptisms. Proclaiming the blood of the Lamb is sufficient, so there’s no need to sacrifice animals. To the best of my knowledge, the following verses from Paul are used to justify baptism of the dead. To my fallible rendering, baptism of the dead was to no avail since the dead didn’t resurrect. Furthermore, Paul ‘died daily.’ Then wouldn’t Paul need to be baptized daily?

1Corinthians 15:29-34, KJV Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead? 30) And why stand we in jeopardy every hour? 31) I protest by your rejoicing which I have in Christ Jesus our Lord, I die daily. 32) If after the manner of men I have fought with beasts at Ephesus, what advantageth it me, if the dead rise not? let us eat and drink; for to morrow we die. 33) Be not deceived: evil communications corrupt good manners. 34) Awake to righteousness, and sin not; for some have not the knowledge of God: I speak this to your shame.​

I hear Paul shunning participants who are baptized for the dead in v. 33, 34. Please let me ask you again, Rev: Does proxy baptism wash away the sins of the deceased? Here’s your statement from post #100:

REV: It was a type of being washed of our sin or ignorance. This was instituted in the new covenant in the from of baptism, which is why it is referred to as washing our sins, Rev 1:5, and being made clean in Him.

Forgive me for suggesting you’re shifting from foot to foot there, Rev. Either water baptism washes away sin or ignorance, or it doesn’t. If water baptism washes away sin, then there’s no need for atonement via the blood of the Lamb. In the OT it was the animal being sacrificed that made atonement, not the washing of the priests and their clothes in Solomon’s brazen sea. Whether appointed by the Romans or not, it was the “high priest” Caiaphas (before the “chief priests”) who suggested Jesus should “die for the people”: John 11:47 KJV, John 11:48 KJV, John 11:49 KJV, John 11:50 KJV, John 11:51 KJV. What you fail to realize is Caiaphas & Co. were NOT ancestrally authentic Israelites (much less authentic priests) as I’ve already alluded to, but you refuse to accept this notion. But, there’s no doubt, speaking of priests and priesthood, the high priest set the stage for the sacrifice of the Lamb of God. So LDS priests wash away sins via baptism... who needs the blood of the Lamb, then? I don’t think becoming an LDS priest is on my agenda. Jesus’ sacrifice is finished, so there’s no need in my mind for priests today to be washing in Solomon’s brazen sea that involved animal sacrifice.

REV: Lev 16:26 And he that let go the goat for the scapegoat shall wash his clothes, and bathe his flesh in water, and afterward come into the camp.

27 And the bullock for the sin offering, and the goat for the sin offering, whose blood was brought in to make atonement in the holy place, shall one carry forth without the camp; and they shall burn in the fire their skins, and their flesh, and their dung.

28 And he that burneth them shall wash his clothes, and bathe his flesh in water, and afterward he shall come into the camp.

The priests washed both before and after.
The law of Moses is very specific about the different offerings etc. That will be revealed more as time passes, and the law is completely fulfilled.

So, the sacrifice of the Lamb of God didn’t completely fulfill the law? Jesus and those aforementioned non-Israelite instigators of His crucifixion fulfilled God’s law of Genesis 3:15 KJV. Take another listen to the commandment Jesus received from His Father:

John 10:14-18, KJV “14) I am the good shepherd, and know my sheep, and am known of mine. 15) As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep. 16) And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd. 17) Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. 18) No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.”​

The LDS focuses on the OT notion of priest involvement with animal sacrifices. The LDS allegedly make priests out of believers, when the king of polygamy’s brazen sea was never used for making priests. Meanwhile, Jesus in the NT focused on making disciples out of His believers: John 8:30 KJV, John 8:31 KJV, John 8:32 KJV, Matthew 28:19. Nicodemus was confused how a Gentile, for instance, might re-enter his mother’s womb and be born again a Jew (John 3:1, 2, 3, 4, 5). Jesus was not talking about water baptism, which, at a later venue, might have involved water baptism by His disciples (John 3:22 KJV).

REV: Washing in the sea was undoubtedly a humbling experience for the priests since it was done publicly. You keep painting a rather sordid picture which in my view impugns its scriptural significance. In giving his life for us, Jesus was revealing the significance of these ancient temple practices, and baptism was one of them. I am just pointing out how it fits in with the ancient temple practices. You of course deny any need for any baptism by immersion, so dismiss any connection.

LDS priests don’t bathe and wash their clothes preparing for, or following animal sacrifice. And, you think Jesus died to validate the LDS notion of OT baptisms? Jesus fulfilled the law being God’s sacrificial Lamb as already mentioned. I suggest you folks consider the next step and begin animal sacrifices to be more OT authentic. The OT priests weren’t baptizing themselves or the Israelites; it was the sacrifice that was important. But, while among the “chief priests,” the “high priest” Caiaphas certainly prepared the Lamb of God for sacrifice: John 11:47, 48, 49, 50, 51, 52. At a glance, the LDS don’t worship Solomon’s brazen sea. LDS just worship water baptism in those retrofitted shallow baptismal fonts that were too deep in the OT to even baptize in: 1Kings 7:23 NLT.

With mutual respect Rev, glorifying the status of water baptism to an irrefutable prerequisite for salvation impugns the significance of being washed in the blood of the Lamb (Revelation 1:4, 5, 7:13, 14, 15). Ceremonial water baptism has its place Rev, and neither water baptism, nor any traditional church hold a candle to the Light of the World (John 8:12 KJV).

kayaker
 

kayaker

New member
Good, but then you go on to totally change the subject: There are a lot of "experts" who supposedly "refute" the translation of the Book of Abraham.

KAY: I particularly appreciate the notion “we aren’t to change the words given by the Lord just because they aren’t understood.”

REV: Good, but then you go on to totally change the subject:

Indeed... my direction was exploring Joseph Smith’s translation skills associated with Egyptian artifacts. He prepared an Egyptian to English character chart for interpreting those scrolls. That chart has been debunked by contemporary Egyptologists. Smith’s rendition of Genesis is rather interesting. Perhaps it would be better to make that comparison.

REV: There are a lot of "experts" who supposedly "refute" the translation of the Book of Abraham. There is a huge flaw tho. The Book of Abraham didn't come from those papyri in their possession which they are "translating." The Book of Abraham itself came from another scroll later found within the breast of one of the mummies. I don't have a link for you atm, but you can find where Emma Smith talks about this additional scroll which has never resurfaced. The scrolls these experts are looking at are represented in the "facsimiles" published with the Book of Abraham. You may be interested to know things like in facsimile 1, Joseph Smith identified the crocodile as "the idolatrous god of Pharaoh." The experts say that it represents Horus. It just so happens that Horus is the idolatrous god par excellence of the pharaohs and was their companion in the afterlife. The canoptic jars also represented different gods, but these changed over the course of Egyptian history, sometimes representing the sons of Horus. Anyway, the long and short of it is that these "experts" spend a lot of time explaining why these "facsimiles" cannot represent what is in the Book of Abraham. Joseph Smith never said they did. The Book of Abraham doesn't even mention Egyptian idolatrous gods.

Well, Rev... I’m a classic example that even a blind wild hawg will find an acorn every now and then. The short of the story is Smith’s translation skill from Egyptian to English has been totally debunked, regardless of which scroll the Book of Abraham came from. The Kinderhook tablets that Smith reports having translated was a hoax. Maybe Smith was or wasn’t skilled or gifted in a number of ways, but Egyptian translation was certainly not one of them. That in itself casts utter doubt in my mind as to the authenticity of the Book of Abraham.

I appreciate your denying the claims that Cain was cursed with black skin. Such is actually contrary to Scripture. As you provided, there’s no scripture corroborating that racist notion, not particularly unique to the LDS. Talmudic Judaism actually first associated black skin being a curse, and they ‘whitewash’ the notion suggesting later contributions to blacks to refute the notion, even though their rabbinical renderings remain on their books. I did want to comment on your point here:

REV: Just because church leaders are imperfect tho doesn't mean a church isn't true. Obviously, all of us are afflicted with imperfection. One of the biggest problems men have is wanting to be right. It is often hard for them to accept correction from the Lord.

I thought all churches were true, Rev. Maybe some are closer to the truth than others, speaking of John 8:32 KJV. A couple verses from Jesus’ prayer for His disciples: John 17:17 KJV, John 17:18 KJV. Please consider John 18:37 KJV, John 18:38 KJV... Pilate knew Jesus was an authentic Israelite Jew. Pilate also knew those making accusations against Jesus were not ancestrally intact Jews: John 19:19 KJV, John 19:20 KJV, John 19:21 KJV, John 19:22 KJV.

KAY: Doesn’t the Book of Mormon maintain Cain was cursed with black skin being the mark, and black skinned folk are the descendants of Cain?

REV: No it doesn't. It attaches no curse with being a "black" person, but rather says blacks and whites are alike unto God. It does talk about Lamanites receiving a "skin of darkness" or blackness, but also says they shall be come "fair and delightsome" again. I believe that has nothing to do with skin pigmentation, but more to do with countenance, etc. Job also speaks this way - of being made black - and becoming outcast, etc.

I appreciate your notion the Book of Mormon’s mention has nothing to do with skin pigmentation in your rendering, Rev. Maybe the following verse is from an older edition:

2 Nephi 5:21 And he had caused the cursing to come upon them, yea, even a sore cursing, because of their iniquity. For behold, they had hardened their hearts against him, that they had become like flint; wherefore, as they were white, and exceedingly fair and delightsome, that they might not be enticing unto, the Lord God did cause a skin of blackness to come upon them.​

So, certainly not Cain & Co., despite prior LDS Church elder declarations, but “the Lord God did cause a skin of blackness” which was “even a sore cursing.”

REV: I do not know whether Adam had any written law. I believe he was the first to receive covenant from God. This was the covenant of works or of the Sabbath - to do the works of God. I do not know what he specifically received that is not given us by scripture. It could well be that the Word given Adam and Eve was preserved orally at the time. nor will I speculate on what went on in Noah's tent.

I appreciate your mention “It could well be the Word was given Adam and Eve was preserved orally at that time.” I tend to think some of the laws of Leviticus were established in that fashion. Hence: God is the same yesterday, today, and tomorrow. The face value of Genesis 9:22 KJV suggests Ham was a gay voyeur. Whatever happened in Noah’s tent was indeed a significant event. To each their own, but Leviticus 18:8 KJV, Leviticus 20:11 KJV, Deuteronomy 22:30 KJV, and Deuteronomy 27:20 KJV speak to this ole blind wild hawg.

So how come both Jesus and Peter place the blame for His crucifixion on the priests and levites? The Jews are clearly blamed.

Great question! What documentation is there those Pharisee priests were all ancestral Israelites? Peter, early in his ministry in Acts 2:22 KJV, was speaking to those mockers (Acts 2:13 KJV). It’s hard for me to imagine that Peter didn’t know some of those mockers were not Israelites or Gentiles. I further define the question that there were instigators of Jesus’ crucifixion, and there were those deluded Israelites, Levites included, who followed suit rebuking the notion Jesus was Messiah. Paul was so deluded before his conversion. It wasn’t Paul’s original idea that Christians deserved rebuke. If you will offer specific cases, maybe I can offer specific responses. But, those circumcised detractors seeking Jesus’ crucifixion (John 8:28 KJV, John 8:37 KJV, John 11:47, 48, 49, 50, 51) were not Israelite Jews (John 8:33 KJV, John 8:37 KJV, John 8:39 KJV; Luke 3:2, 7, 8, 9; Romans 9:6, 7; Revelations 2:9, 3:9).

That’s the real question, who are the Jews? And, that question is addressed to a large extent in the next post reflecting on Ezra’s account in 1Chronicles 4:1.

kayaker
 

kayaker

New member
Well, you could spend a bit of time on LDS.org searching through stories. I've posted several that can be linked to from my signature. But I don't think God wants people going to a church because they want to be healed.

REV: Well, you could spend a bit of time on LDS.org searching through stories. I've posted several that can be linked to from my signature. But I don't think God wants people going to a church because they want to be healed. He wants to heal them because they have faith and want to serve Him. I've also heard first hand accounts from members which don't appear online - just "little" things like coming back from being dead. But, I will admit I do not know of a "genetic healing." I assume that would be something like being made hearing?

I appreciate the notion God doesn’t want people going to church to be physically healed, Rev. The purpose of those genetic healings in the Bible was to affirm Jesus’ divine authenticity: John 10:36 KJV, John 10:37 KJV, John 10:38 KJV. Please listen again to John 9:1 KJV, John 9:2 KJV, John 9:3 KJV, with particular emphasis John 9:4 KJV and John 9:5 KJV. Among all of Jesus’ healing miracles, that was the only time His disciples asked the heritability question (John 9:2 KJV). That happened to be the second time Jesus said He is the Light of the World (John 9:5 KJV). The first time, of only two, was in John 8:12 KJV when His Paternal origin was challenged (John 8:13, 19, 15) by those circumcised non-Israelites occupying priest’s positions plotting Jesus’ crucifixion (John 8:33 KJV, John 8:37 KJV, John 8:39 KJV, John 11:47, 48, 49, 50, 51, Luke 3:2, 7, 8, 9; Romans 9:6, 7, 8, Revelations 2:9, 3:9).

With full appreciation for those first hand accounts of “coming back from the dead”, I want to see the medical records. The definitive results of a supernatural healing will reveal DNA changes before and after. I insist Jesus could provide those tests, today. With all due respect, Jesus was no ordinary physician at your local urgent care or ER.

REV: Then how do you explain both Jesus and Peter place the blame for His crucifixion on the priests and levites? The Jews are clearly blamed. What's more in order for them to return to Jerusalem after Babylon, their Jewish heritage had to be confirmed by Urim and Thummim. Did you note that?

If you’ll note, Jesus never spoke a name in condemnation, other than ‘devil’ already judged (John 8:15 KJV), even though He was speaking to specific priests. I could give you a classic example of Jesus’ indirect reference to avoid condemning individuals, but Smith’s rendering of the KJV (sure, he re-translated the KJV) inaccurately sets the stage. Smith wrote that God told Cain:

24 For from this time forth thou shalt be the father of his lies; thou shalt be called Perdition; for thou wast also before the world.
http://sacred-texts.com/mor/pgp/moses5.htm

The father of lies was Satan, found in Smith’s prior chapter:

4 And he became Satan, yea, even the devil, the father of all lies, to deceive and to blind men, and to lead them captive at his will, even as many as would not hearken unto my voice.

10 And the serpent said unto the woman: Ye shall not surely die;
http://sacred-texts.com/mor/pgp/moses4.htm

Now, you may wish to argue the difference between Cain being the “father of his lies”, and Satan being the “father of all lies,” Jesus’ words in John 8:44 KJV provide evidence of Jesus’ direct (‘devil’), and indirect reference (circumventing individual condemnation) speaking to His accusers (instigators) who were priests (my parentheses):

John 8:44 KJV “Ye (accusers) are of you father the devil, and the lusts of your father (the devil) ye (accusers) will do. (Jesus now expounds how Satan is their literal father). He ( ) was a murderer from the beginning (Genesis 4:8 KJV), and abode not in the truth (Genesis 4:9 KJV), because there is no truth in him ( ). When he ( ) speaketh a lie (Genesis 4:9 KJV), he ( ) speaketh of his own : (note the KJV colon reveals further clarification of “his own”, his own what:) For he ( ) is a liar (Genesis 3:4 KJV), and the father of it (Genesis 3:4 KJV, Genesis 3:5 KJV).​

Who were those ‘he’s’ Jesus was referring to, Rev? Maybe John 14:26 KJV comes into play. Most folk simply render John 8:44 KJV out of context as only figuratively referring to Satan exclusively, and not Cain, in a strictly spiritual sense. I beg to differ... their (Jesus and His accusers) entire dialogue between John 8:12 KJV and John 8:47 KJV was about ‘who’s ya daddy’: John 8:13, 18, 19, 25, John 8:33 KJV, John 8:37 KJV, John 8:38 KJV, John 8:39 KJV, John 8:41 KJV, John 8:42 KJV, John 8:43 KJV, John 8:44 KJV, John 8:47 KJV. Smith’s aforementioned re-translation of Genesis confounds John 8:44 KJV, but I don’t hear any better rendering from any other churches, either.

I do know the OT notion of Urim and Thummim was first mentioned several years after Joseph Smith actually used magical seer stone(s) placed in his hat, with his face buried therein, to translate the Book of Mormon (BoM). He’d previously as a mid-teen with his father, and continued shortly after translating the BoM, to use said seer stone in similar fashion to ‘see’ and dig for buried treasure for folk. Didn’t Smith dig up those golden tablets he alleged came from the angel, Maroni? The accounts of his scribes reveal Smith didn’t translate from those 220 pounds of alleged golden tablets. Smith translated the BoM from that magical seer stone he found twenty feet deep while digging a well around age 14. Maybe seer stones work for some folk, even the OT Urim and Thummim mentioned several years after Smith translated the BoM from that seer stone. The NT suggests the Holy Spirit of Truth “shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever (Jesus) said unto you” (John 14:26 KJV). My bet’s on the latter.

KAY: Assume an Israelite priest’s daughter (like one of Levi’s daughters, as I proffer Tamar was) procreated with an Israelite non-priest (like Judah, the lawgiver). Would their son be a priest, then? I understand the paternalistic (to say the least) LDS/Mormons have a little difficulty with priesthood lineages.

REV: For one thing the question is ambiguous.

Appreciating your mention of different priesthoods, the question is perfectly clear: Can the daughter of a priest confer priesthood status to her son sired by a non-priest Israelite father?

REV: Well thank you for your kind expression, but
I expect you do too in my view. Let me go further. Do you accept that Jesus saw the Father lay down His life for the sheep? Do you accept that the Father lived His name of YHWH, Behold the Hand, Behold the Nail which name Jesus inherited? Do you accept that the Father was about to glorify His name "again" when His only Begotten Son followed Him to the tree? John 12:28 Do you accept that Jesus did all things He saw the Father do? Do you accept that Jesus was made in the express image of the Father? Do you accept that Jesus showed us plainly of the Father up on the tree? Do you accept this notion of the tree of life? Do you accept that except a word die, it abideth alone? John 12:24

You’ve thrown many questions on the table, Rev. You’re simply circumventing the question: What explicitly did Jesus see, what event did Jesus visualize with His Father (John 8:39 KJV)? That was Jesus’ testimony to His divine origin being one of two testimonies (John 8:18 KJV). That visualization was one of the two testimonies that “converted” (Matthew 13:15 KJV) Jesus’ ‘believers’ (John 8:31 KJV) into Jesus’ “disciples indeed” (John 8:31 KJV) knowing “...the truth, and the truth shall make you free” (John 8:32 KJV).

REV: Well, as I have pointed out on Clete's paradigm thread, we all tend to follow Jesus and God somewhat imperfectly. The church's role is that of our Mother - to ensure that we are fed the word. It is up to us as individuals to live in or abide that word. I believe what you are intonating to is living the oracles of God, but Hebrews teaches us to live the oracles we must be weaned from the milk, and be willing to accept the meat of the gospel which is for men rather than babes.

Indeed Rev, only One was perfect without spot or blemish. We SHOULD be fed the word in churches, Rev. But, churches are breast feeding their flocks (Matthew 24:19 KJV). If churches were putting meat o the table I’d be hearing countless responses to the explicit and succinct details of those two testimonies (John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV) of these two Divine witnesses (John 8:18 KJV) that “converted” (Matthew 13:15 KJV) Jesus’ “believers” (John 8:30 KJV) into Jesus’ “disciples indeed” (John 8:31 KJV), who KNOW “the truth, and the truth shall make you free” (John 8:32 KJV). So, where are all those “disciples indeed” fulfilling Matthew 28:19? The absence of explicit and succinct details of those two testimonies (John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV) is prima facie evidence churches have NOT been putting Scriptural meat on the table fulfilling Matthew 28:19. Was Ham a gay voyeur, Rev (Genesis 9:22 KJV)?

KAY: What was Jesus’ explicit and succinct visualization (John 8:38 KJV)?

REV: See above. But to a lesser extent it was live His words as best we can. This is far from just accepting His name and thereby "being saved" as is often taught these days. I call this getting to first base. But I think we basically agree on this much.

We certainly agree with your perception, Rev. First base is becoming a believer. Where we go from there is a matter for the Holy Spirit of Truth (John 14:16, 17, 26). As possibly do you, I get the rather disconcerting impression believers (pending disciples) might not “endure to the end, the same shall be saved” (Matthew 24:13 KJV, Matthew 24:14 KJV). Please realize Jesus was speaking exclusively to His disciples in Matthew 24 regarding the end times (Matthew 24:3, 4, 5...). But, in my perception, as I’ve already alluded to several times, churches seem to be a little short on leading believers into Jesus’ discipleship (John 8:30, John 8:31 KJV, John 8:32 KJV).

REV: Well, if you are a "believer" that makes one basically a disciple, but I think I catch your drift.

You’re an intelligent fellow, Rev. Quite likely you do catch my drift, but it’s not really my drift, with sincere appreciation. Jesus delineated between believers (multitudes) and disciples in Matthew 13:10 KJV, Matthew 13:11 KJV, Matthew 13:12 KJV, Matthew 13:13 KJV, Matthew 13:14 KJV, Matthew 13:15 KJV, Matthew 13:16 KJV, Matthew 13:17 KJV. Jesus was speaking exclusively to His disciples in that dialogue. Furthermore, Jesus fulfilled His words (Matthew 13:15 KJV) in John 8:30 KJV, John 8:31 KJV, John 8:32 KJV... all captured within that dialogue (except for those three verses) between Jesus and those circumcised, non-Israelite Pharisee priests plotting Jesus’ crucifixion (John 8:12-47, ‘who’s ya daddy’). With as much interest as you have in priesthood Rev, I figure you would zero in exploring their ancestry, more than they were merely appointed by the Romans. I don’t think they were appointed by the Romans, btw. Those priests were appointed by the people, and merely accepted by the Romans. If the priests couldn’t keep folk calm, and Jesus was stirring up a ruckus to say the least, their status would be revoked (John 11:45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50, 51). I think the Romans appointed governors and the like, not religious leaders, but such was certainly a risk when Jesus came on the scene!

There are certainly LDS who talk the talk, but
don't walk the walk in every day life. But I proffer that most at least try - which is one of the things that initially attracted me to the church.

Like I’ve said... I’ve not met a 100% “church” person, yet. It appears as though all churches offer some manner of apostolic walk, Rev. Some are more strict than others, so to speak, more ‘the right way.’ Yet, all fall short, Rev. The Church of Christ blesses baptismal water to become the literal blood of Jesus whereby one’s sins are washed away at baptism, and ONLY then. The Catholic Church has their Holy Sacrament where the bread and wine are literally turned into the flesh and blood of Jesus, whereby one becomes God (Jesus is God in their rendering) by partaking. Catholic baptismal water is consecrated (made holy) whereby one receives the Holy Spirit, and achieves salvation short of a major infraction. Baptismal spiritual regeneration is rather popular.

I get the impression LDS baptism all but achieves that same notion to be priests in the first resurrection. Said churches, among others no doubt, spend considerable time and effort justifying water baptism in Scripture as a salvation prerequisite. Certainly, I don’t. Water baptism is not a mystery; it’s a delusion when water baptism offers any more than a public profession, appreciating our disagreement.

But is Jesus happy with everyone in the church? I proffer no.
D&C 112: 24 Behold, vengeance cometh speedily upon the inhabitants of the earth, a day of wrath, a day of burning, a day of desolation, of weeping, of mourning, and of lamentation; and as a whirlwind it shall come upon all the face of the earth, saith the Lord.
25 And upon my house shall it begin, and from my house shall it go forth, saith the Lord;
26 First among those among you, saith the Lord, who have professed to know my name and have not known me, and have blasphemed against me in the midst of my house, saith the Lord.

Here we are again, Rev: “who have professed to know my name and have not known me.” Jesus’ divine Paternity was captured in those two testimonies (John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV). How can one say one knows Jesus, but not know the explicit and succinct details of those two testimonies corroborating Jesus’ divine origin (John 8:12, 13, 19, 25)? His healing genetic miracles corroborated his Divinity in my first, clearer understanding of who Jesus is... one of the only two times Jesus said He is the Light of the world (John 9:1, 2, 3, 4, and John 8:12, 13, 18, John 8:30 KJV, John 8:31 KJV, John 8:32 KJV...).

REV: I'm not sure what Mary you are referring to, but my guess is that all the Marys in the NT are Israelite. This however, doesn't make her a priestess. Were daughters brought to the temple to present them to the Lord?
Sacrifice was the responsibility of the priesthood, and exclusively a male responsibility. I do not know why per se.
But to continue to the next verse in Luke we see that:
23 (As it is written in the law of the Lord, Every male that openeth the womb shall be called holy to the Lord
24 And to offer a sacrifice according to that which is said in the law of the Lord, A pair of turtledoves, or two young pigeons.

Agreed Rev, but the question still remains: Can the daughter of a priest convey priesthood status upon her son sired by a non-priest Israelite father?

REV: Paul was instructed to go to Ananias. Ananias laid his hands on Saul who received his sight. Giving blessings of healing is a priesthood function performed this way in Acts. It is substantial evidence that Ananias held the priesthood.

I certainly submit likewise, Rev. But, Scripture didn’t identify Annanias as a priest. He was foremost identified as a disciple.

KAY: Do you think Tamar was a Canaanite? Could Jesus just as easily have been the Son of any ole virgin, even a Canaanite virgin descendant of Judah, prophesied progenitor of Messiah (Isaiah 65:9 KJV), and his Canaanitess wife (1Chronicles 2:3; Genesis 38:1, 2)?

REV: No, because Judah was the law-giver and therefore as a law-giver, Jesus came of Judah as prophesied in Isaiah 65. As Hebrews points out tho, the law said nothing concerning Judah and the priesthood of Aaron, therefore Jesus held a different priesthood - the same Moses, Jethro, Abraham, and Melchizedek held. One did not have to be a Levite to hold this priesthood - which is where you run into problems with poking at the BoM and the restored priesthood of LDS.

You state, “Jesus came of Judah as prophesied in Isaiah 65.” Well... Judah sired sons via TWO females, Rev: his Canaanite wife, and his daughter-in-law Tamar. Why wasn’t Messiah a descendant of Judah and his Canaanitess wife, then (1Chronicles 2:3)? That was the quandary of the day, Rev. And, this begs the question: Could the daughter of a priest confer priesthood status upon her son sired by a non-priest Israelite father? I poke at all churches Rev, so try not to feel too special, lol! And, I poke at the LDS/Mormon church for making priests out of believers circumventing the aforementioned status of Jesus’ “disciples indeed” (John 8:30, John 8:31 KJV, John 8:32 KJV). You admonish the status of priest, and virtually discount being a “disciple indeed” as little more than a believer, if that much. Paul’s disciple Annanias was identified as a disciple, not a priest, although we agree he was. Matthew 28:19 didn’t say anything about being a priest. Where does JESUS explicitly and distinctly open the door (akin to John 8:30 KJV, John 8:31 KJV, John 8:32 KJV) for believers to become ‘priests indeed’? Therefore, LDS/Mormons jumped the gun as have most if not all churches not explicitly and succinctly unveiling those two testimonies (John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV). I have some appreciation that not everyone can arrive at the overwhelming circumstantial conclusion Jesus was a genetic healer.

REV: First, I don't necessarily agree with all your characterizations. I don't think it possible for Judah to have a "Canaanite" son. I believe no matter who Judah took for a wife, their son would be Israelite.

Please allow a simple illustration, Rev. If a male German Shepherd mates with a Rottweiler, is the puppy a German Shepherd? Please consider Ezra: “The sons of Judah; Pharez (via Tamar, Genesis 38:29), Hezron (aka Esrom, son of Pharez, 1Chronicles 2:5), etc., found in 1Chronicles 4:1 KJV and corroborated in Luke 3:33 and Matthew 1:3. I’m not suggesting Shelah was not a first degree son of Judah; but, the sons of Shelah by Judah’s Canaanitess wife (1Chronicles 2:3) were not included as “The sons of Judah...” (1Chronicles 4:1) as Ezra noted in 1Chronicles 4:21 KJV, 1Chronicles 4:22 KJV. Therefore, Shelah & Co. were NOT a component of the ‘tribe’ of Judah as Ezra made this distinction.

Please consider further: The “sons of God (Adamite/Sethites) saw the daughters of men (Cain’s daughters) that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose” (Genesis 6:1 KJV). There were a bunch of Sethite-Cainite progeny (Genesis 6:3, 4, 5, 6), and along came the flood (Genesis 6:7 KJV, God was pretty serious. Noah, “perfect in his generations (ancestry)” (Genesis 6:8 KJV, Genesis 6:9 KJV) sanctioned procreation between the Gentiles and Shemites (Genesis 9:27 KJV), and the descendants of Ham and Canaan were excluded by default. Said default left the ‘Hamites’ and descendants of Canaan in a dilemma when it came to seeking mates, right? The Land of Canaan was reserved for the descendants of Ham and Canaan, and said land was separate from the Gentiles and Shemites.

Abraham said NO Canaanite wives for Isaac (Genesis 24:3 KJV). Moses said Abraham’s progeny via Keturah were “the sons of Keturah”, NOT Abraham... they weren’t Hebrews. Isaac and Rebekah said NO Canaanite wives for Jacob (Genesis 27:46, 28:1, 2, 3, 4). God and Moses said NO Canaanite wives among the Israelites (Deuteronomy 7:1, 2, 3). Ezra said marriage to Canaanite wives was a “great trespass” (Ezra 9:1, 2, 7), and even set those “strange wives” and offspring aside from the congregation in Ezra 10:2, 3.

So, what part of NO Canaanite wives am I not able to corroborate, Rev? How many times have I said, “No hanky panky with the Canaanites”? But, you’re going to turn a blind eye to all that documented evidence to the contrary? Judah transgressed s hooking up with a Canaanite wife (Genesis 38:2, 1Chronicles 2:3).

You defend King Solomon, king of polygamy, with “strange wives”, saying he didn’t sin until he started worshipping other gods. That’s when Solomon lost his kingship Rev, and that was what God and Moses said would happen in Deuteronomy 7:1, 2, 3, 4. Solomon transgressed the written law before he began worshipping other gods, Rev. Are you defending polygamy? Joseph Smith, abusing his authority at the age of 37, hooked up with a near 15 year old daughter adding to his harem.

As you interpret the law, Jacob's sons could only marry their sisters or their seed would no longer be Israelite. But we see this is not so. Joseph married a woman in Egypt. Yet Ephraim and Manasseh are considered to be tribes of Israel.

I and we have already discussed this, Rev. I said Noah sanctioned procreation between Gentiles and Shemites in Genesis 9:27 KJV. Gentile wives were not Canaanites. Didn’t we agree Joseph’s wife was a Gentile? Even if she was Egyptian by blood, consider Deuteronomy 23:7, 9, another time, perhaps.

I'm not sure who all the other brothers married, but I am sure it was someone outside the family of Israel - ie not their sisters. You are very preoccupied with maintaining a "pure" line, but nothing seems smart about that. Did you want Judah to marry his sister so that Jesus could come out of a "pure" Israelite line?

Was Jesus a pure pedigree Israelite, Rev? Judah, the prophesied progenitor of Messiah, and specific patriarch being discussed, definitely married outside the tribe: a Canaanitess. Had Tamar not played the harlot, Judah’s name, his ancestry, would have disappeared from the house of Israel with no sons to inherit Promised Land. I’ve already documented God’s intervention in the conceptions of Isaac, Jacob, even Judah’s conception being a son of Jacob’s barren sister-cousin wife, Leah (Genesis 29:31, 35 KJV). What’s smart about a “pure” line is that it produced Jesus. Gentiles were not Canaanites. Egyptians were not Canaanites. So, it’s not me who originated the idea of Jesus descending from a pure Israelite line, it’s God’s, Noah’s, Moses’, and Ezra’s: NO Canaanites, Rev. Jesus’ ancestry didn’t just begin with Mary, an Israelite, agreed. Why wasn’t Messiah born of a virgin Canaanite descendant of Judah and his Canaanitess wife?

REV: I don't see anywhere God prohibited Cain from procreating or denied him the privilege of marrying.

Do you hear conjugal rights being an option for a “fugitive and vagabond shalt thou be in the earth” (Genesis 4:12 KJV)? Cain was incarcerated in solitary confinement, Rev. It wasn’t until Cain pleaded for mercy (Genesis 4:13) that that God amended sentence putting Cain on parole for good behavior (no procreation) for the remainder of his long life. The mark of anonymity put Cain on parole to mingle, which inherently afforded God’s unintended option for Cain to then mingle and procreate, so there was a price: Cain’s otherwise extremely long life would be cut short by CAIN’s “sevenfold” generation: Lamech, seventh generation of Eve (Genesis 4:16, 17, 18). Who do you think Lamech killed if not his beloved and relatively very young great-grandfather, Cain (Genesis 4:23 KJV)? Was Lamech’s kill just some random act of violence in God’s Word?

REV: Again, do you propose that Judah marry his sister to avoid have a non-Israelite wife? The problem with Canaan arose only when Canaan went away and worshiped other gods. Most other nations had that problem.

Judah could have married a Gentile (Genesis 9:27 KJV). Try again Rev... “the problem with Canaan” preceded worshipping other gods: Cursed be Canaan (Genesis 9:25 KJV).

REV: I'm sure there is since the Israelites did not kill them all out. We treat all alike unto God, and all are allowed to receive the priesthood, so if one converts, they can receive it. Are there any Canaanite priests in Kayaker's view of the priesthood?

You’ve pulled a time warp on me, Rev. Now you’re talking from a NT perspective looking at the OT. How did God tell the Israelites to deal with those Canaanites, Rev: Deuteronomy 7:1, 2, Deuteronomy 7:3 KJV, Deuteronomy 7:4 KJV, Deuteronomy 7:5. Did you catch Deuteronomy 7:2 KJV? Deuteronomy 7:5 KJV? The notion of ‘conversion’ was rarely mentioned in the OT, and prophetically, then: Isaiah 1:27, 6:10, 60:5; Psalm 19:7, 51:13. Jesus talked about multitudes (believers) being “converted” in Matthew 13:15 KJV... His believers (John 8:30 KJV) were “converted” into Jesus’ “disciples indeed” in John 8 (John 8:31 KJV). “Conversion” is a NT concept and application.

Kayaker is not a priesthood expert, Rev. Such is your skill set as you admonish water baptism and priesthood genealogy. My skill set is Jesus’ genealogy, being baptized in His ‘name’, and Jesus’ door into His discipleship.

REV: In my view the NT covenant replaced the Black letter of the law, leaving only the spiritual law. Under the spiritual law, a Canaanite convert to Christ is not forbidden.

Zoom... another time warp, Rev. Paul made it perfectly clear ancestry was insignificant, as we’re both familiar. But, that was after the “pure line” of Israelites produced Jesus. In the OT, NO hanky panky with the Canaanites, “...thou shalt smite them, and utterly destroy them; thou shalt make no covenant with them, nor shew mercy unto them; 3) Neither shalt thou make marriages with them...” (Deuteronomy 7:2, 3). Ezra 9:1, 2, 7.

REV: Onan was not slain because he was "Canaanite" but because he refused to follow the law and raise up seed to his brother.

I’ll not argue the law wasn’t yet written then, Rev. Evidently, we’ve come to same conclusion God is the same yesterday, today, and tomorrow. What you’re not seeing here is a German Shepherd male mates with a Rottweiler... your answer will likely be the puppy will be a dog. God’s chosen were the Israelites (Deuteronomy 7:6, 7, 8, 9, 10), and God with the flood, Noah, Abraham, Isaac/Rebekah, God, Moses and Ezra said God’s chosen Israelites were to have NO hanky panky with the Canaanites. You might want to explore the definition of a mamzer (somewhat similar to ‘bastard’) when considering Deuteronomy 23:2 KJV.

In the English use of the word, a child neither born nor begotten in lawful wedlock; an illegitimate child. There is no Hebrew word of like meaning. The mamzer, rendered "bastard" in the A. V., is something worse than an illegitimate child. He is the offspring of a father and mother between whom there could be in law no binding betrothal: issuing either from adultery between a married woman and a man other than her husband, or from incest within the forbidden degrees of kinship or affinity defined in Lev. xviii. and xx. The child of a marriage simply forbidden, as that between a cohen and a divorced woman, is legitimate but "profane"; that is, a son can not officiate as a priest, a daughter is not eligible to marry a priest.
But a mamzer, according to Deut. xxiii. 3, must not "enter the congregation of the Lord," that is, marry an Israelite woman, "nor shall his tenth generation enter," etc., which includes also the female mamzer (Ḳid. iii. 12; Mak. iii. 1). The older Halakah, however, was more rigorous, Akiba declaring any child of a forbidden connection a mamzer (Yeb. iv. 12, 13; Yer. ib. 6b; Bab. ib. 44a, 49a).
http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/2648-bastard

Rev... even “Onan knew the seed should not be his...” Genesis 38:9 KJV). Onan, the second son of Judah the lawgiver KNEW he was a mamzer. And, Onan KNEW his progeny with Tamar would be a mamzer. And that’s why Onan withdrew spilling his seed on the ground. God killed Onan for getting THAT close to siring a child with the ISRAELITE Tamar, particularly the daughter of a priest that surely Onan knew. Churches are too busy authenticating themselves and confabulating salvation paradigms to consider the weightier matters of Scripture Rev, the LDS/Mormon Church included. Had Onan been an Israelite, your observation would have been utterly accurate.

REV: Your insistence of having a "pure" line from which Jesus sprang necessitates Judah to marry a sister, and females being priests. I just don't follow that kind of reasoning. It is not taught in the Bible.

Reconsider a Gentile or Egyptian wife, which I do not suggest Tamar was. Considering God opening the wombs of Abraham’s half-sister wife, Isaac’s cousin-wife, Jacob’s cousin-sister wives... Leah was Judah’s mother. Judah hooking up with his niece, as I maintain Tamar was, was a walk in the park: “Is anything too hard for the Lord?” (Genesis 18:13 KJV). So I suggest you dig a little deeper before laughing at that kind of reasoning that is taught in the Bible, simply connect the dots.

KAY: I admire the notion of having faith in His words and those of His chosen witnesses, speaking of John 8:18 KJV, John 8:38 KJV, John 8:40 KJV. I suspect you’re referring to the LDS/Mormon prophet Joseph Smith being a chosen witness among the LDS/Mormon church elders. To each their own, but it sounds to me like churches, the LDS/Mormon Church included, are just a few slices short of the truth on quite a number of issues. Churches are too busy authenticating themselves and confabulating salvation paradigms for their flocks. Churches don’t have time to delve into the weightier issues in Scripture. With all due respect for churches, I think I’ll paddle on in my kayak with the Bible as my map, and the Holy Spirit being my compass. Thank you for addressing my concerns!

REV: So in your interpretation of the Spirit, Judah had to marry his sister, as well as his other brothers, etc down through all their progeny? That's quite a view there Kayaker. The Spirit doesn't show me that at all. I'm sure they married outside of the family all the time.

Indeed there was marriage outside the Israelite family, Rev. Ezra made it perfectly clear such was a “great trespass” (Ezra 9:1, 2, 7). Judah hooked up with his niece playing the harlot, not his sister Rev, his daughter-in-law the age of Judah’s brothers’ daughters. And, I’ve already provided the violations of that relationship in Leviticus. Those non-Israelite priests plotting Jesus’ crucifixion said THEY were “not born of fornication” (John 8:41 KJV); they were descendants of Judah and his Canaanite wife. Are you suggesting Jesus was born of fornication being a descendant of Judah and his niece daughter-in-law? Didn’t you bring up Abraham being married to his sister? God wrote the law, and only God can change it, and He did: His Messiah arrived as an unadulterated Israelite. The problem was Judah was married to a Canaanitess that you clearly see no problem with despite countless Scripture to the contrary. Same with Solomon’s hotties. So, you might want to test that Spirit you’re listening to.

And, we are instructed to test the Spirit, Rev:

1John 4:1-3, KJV “Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world. 2) Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God: 3) And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is in the world”​

I’m here testifying Tamar was a “pure” Israelite daughter of a priest, and Jesus was a “pure” Israelite from among God’s chosen Israelites (Deuteronomy 7:6, 7, 8, 9, 10). Who do you think Tamar was, then?

I wasn't actually referring to Joseph Smith as one of those witnesses, but I do believe he was. He too was an imperfect person and had his foibles, but he was a chosen vessel none the less, and the Lord did speak through him. As He will through the 2 witnesses, etc until His mystery is finished. What do you say to that? Do you think the Lord will speak through the 2 witnesses of Revelation 11?

Many LDS/Mormons believe Joseph Smith was a flesh descendant of Jesus. Do you think Jesus sired literal flesh children on planet earth, Rev? Joseph Smith translated the Book of Mormon looking at a seer stone in his hat with his face buried within, just like he used that same stone and process divining and digging for buried treasure. Several years later, Smith’s seer stone was referred to as the Urim and Thummim to ‘whitewash’ that seer stone associating it with the OT. Smith’s alleged skill to translate Egyptian writing has been totally debunked, even if he had the Dead Sea scrolls. Joseph Smith was a sexual predator. Chosen you suggest? Joseph was no more chosen than anyone else, being optimistic. But, I will give him credit for translating Scripture in the Book of Mormon from a King James Bible... he even included the italicized words provided by the KJV translators for clarification. I do have some differences with his rendering of the KJV, but I have to give him credit on some of his re-translation, rather rendering of the KJV. I suppose it’s of no consolation Rev, but I give you more credit being chosen than I do Joseph Smith.

Sure the Lord will speak through the 2 witnesses of Revelation, but Joseph Smith won’t be one of them. Smith will be too busy doing the hanky panky on his planet Kolob, or thereabouts, with all those wives he sealed in the flesh, lol!

kayaker
 
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