Why do you change the order of the clauses in this verse?
I copied exactly as the KJV has it.
I didn't change a thing.
Jesus was "in the world" when the world was "made" and when the world "knew him not." The preceding verses explain that Jesus was "coming into the world" at the time John the baptizer was testifying about him (John 1:7-9). This isn't referring to the time of the Genesis creation.
Jesus referred to "the beginning" as the time when he was preaching the gospel with his disciples (John 6:64; John 8:25; John 15:27; John 16:4). Luke also noted that the apostles were "eyewitnesses of the word (LOGOS) from the beginning" (Luke 1:2-3). Thus, John 1:1-3 has nothing to do with the time of the Genesis creation. It is referring to the time when Jesus "began" his ministry and was baptized by John (Luke 3:23; Acts 1:21-22).
Of all the phrases of "
in the beginning" (using the KJV), all of them have immediately following what the beginning was speaking about with the addition of the word "
of" _______ (fill in the blank).
Such as:
Jdg 7:19 - came unto the outside of the camp in the beginning of the middle watch
Ruth 1:22 - they came to Bethlehem in the beginning of barley harvest
Jer 28:1 - in the beginning of the reign of Zedekiah
Php 4:15 - Now ye Philippians know also, that in the beginning of the gospel
And many more.
EXCEPT in Gen 1:1, John 1:1-2, Heb 1:10
No "
of' there. No filling in of the blank.
All of which speak of the original creation beginning.
