ECT Why did God give Jesus, the man, His Glory?

[Cross Reference]

"I am the LORD: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another, . . . . . "

"And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one"

Isaiah 42:8 (KJV)
John 17:22 (KJV)

 

[DAN P]

"I am the LORD: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another, . . . . . "

"And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one"

Isaiah 42:8 (KJV)
John 17:22 (KJV)

Hi , and here is my HUMBLE answer , be cause of Phil 2:6-8 Jesus have to HIDE hide His Glory from man LEST he die .

Later as many passages say Christ received His Glory back , like in John 17:22 !

dan p

 

[oatmeal]

"I am the LORD: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another, . . . . . "

"And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one"

Isaiah 42:8 (KJV)
John 17:22 (KJV)

Before he gave that same glory to his disciples.

How interesting that the same glory that God gave to Jesus Christ, Jesus Christ gave to his disciples

 

[revpete]

δόξα {dox'-ah} Glory. This word is used 151 times in the NT and has a very wide usage indeed. Matthew uses it in the account of Jesus' temptation when describing the glory of the kingdoms of the world. Matt 6:29 when describing Solomon and in the Lord's Prayer: "Thine be the glory...etc" and in numerous other places. The context in which the word is employed dictates its usage.

Pete

 

[Cross Reference]

δόξα {dox'-ah} Glory. This word is used 151 times in the NT and has a very wide usage indeed. Matthew uses it in the account of Jesus' temptation when describing the glory of the kingdoms of the world. Matt 6:29 when describing Solomon and in the Lord's Prayer: "Thine be the glory...etc" and in numerous other places. The context in which the word is employed dictates its usage.

Pete

Doesn't fit His prayer Jesus made for His Disciples John 17.

 

[oatmeal]

"I am the LORD: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another, . . . . . "

"And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one"

Isaiah 42:8 (KJV)
John 17:22 (KJV)

Same reason that Jesus took that glory that God gave to him and gave it to his disciples.

 

[Lazy afternoon]

Hi , and here is my HUMBLE answer , be cause of Phil 2:6-8 Jesus have to HIDE hide His Glory from man LEST he die .

Later as many passages say Christ received His Glory back , like in John 17:22 !

dan p

Well which is it.

Did He have it and was hiding it or

Did He not have it and received it back?

or did He never have it but was found worthy to receive it.

LA

 

[Cross Reference]

Well which is it.

Did He have it and was hiding it or

Did He not have it and received it back?

or did He never have it but was found worthy to receive it.

LA

How 'bout it being a statement, by Jesus, revealing the depth of His intimate relationship of equality with God __ made difficult to understand because He was human.