ECT The Years the Locusts Devoured

I

Interplanner

Well-known member
The plain meaning of the Daniel passage is 490 consecutive years. There is no mysterious gap. There is an extension of the 'flood' or the 'end.' But there is no irrational skip X000 years to the future. It was about the rebellion of ch 8 coming to a head and ruining the country, because they could not accept being supervised by the 4th kingdom that was to come. Messiah would come during the same stormy period and sacrifice for sin and bless many. But the country and the worship system would be trounced, and was.

assigning letters from Rev 2-3 to church periods is cockamanie.
 
SaulToPaul 2

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
The plain meaning of the Daniel passage is 490 consecutive years. There is no mysterious gap. There is an extension of the 'flood' or the 'end.' But there is no irrational skip X000 years to the future. It was about the rebellion of ch 8 coming to a head and ruining the country, because they could not accept being supervised by the 4th kingdom that was to come. Messiah would come during the same stormy period and sacrifice for sin and bless many. But the country and the worship system would be trounced, and was.

assigning letters from Rev 2-3 to church periods is cockamanie.
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Made up.
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
DAN P said:
Hi and the book of Acts 2:20 happened in the 6 century ??

I is all in the Greek FUTURE TENSE and any that checks the Greek will see what you are denying !!

And that is how you dismiss it by APPARENTLY EXTENDED , good job !!

dan p
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Learn how to read or quit. It says the 60s or 6th decade, of the 1st century. Jesus said the babies on the path to his crucifixion would be adults and see it all happen. So there is no way around that timestamp.

Not surprisingly, STP contgrats you for such an elementary mistake. He must be wearing his 'make up.'
 
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DAN P

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
Learn how to read or quit. It says the 60s or 6th decade, of the 1st century. Jesus said the babies on the path to his crucifixion would be adults and see it all happen. So there is no way around that timestamp.

Not surprisingly, STP contgrats you for such an elementary mistake. He must be wearing his 'make up.'
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Hi and it is good to have you around and so all will see what to AVOID !!

I guess Rom 5:14 is not to be answered and you are just showing your CALLOW side , is OK , as that is the best you can do ?

dan p
 
SaulToPaul 2

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
Learn how to read or quit. It says the 60s or 6th decade, of the 1st century. Jesus said the babies on the path to his crucifixion would be adults and see it all happen. So there is no way around that timestamp.

Not surprisingly, STP contgrats you for such an elementary mistake. He must be wearing his 'make up.'
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huh
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
DAN P said:
Hi and it is good to have you around and so all will see what to AVOID !!

I guess Rom 5:14 is not to be answered and you are just showing your CALLOW side , is OK , as that is the best you can do ?

dan p
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Rom 5:14 has nothing to do with the generation in question. The Bible does not hinge on one verse.
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
DAN P said:
Hi and you will refuse to answer when you know the Greek better than me , you will AVOID Rom 5:13 and 14 ??

GOOD JOB !!

dan p
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Sin was imputed to those people even though there was no law around as such. Imputed means it was showing in their account, and 'death reigned.'
 
Right Divider

Right Divider

Body part
Interplanner said:
Sin was imputed to those people even though there was no law around as such.
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You always go against scripture.... why is that?

Rom 5:12-14 (AKJV/PCE)​
(5:12) Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: (5:13) (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law. (5:14) Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
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Interplanner said:
Imputed means it was showing in their account, and 'death reigned.'
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Confused or lying.... which is it?
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
Right Divider said:
You always go against scripture.... why is that?

Rom 5:12-14 (AKJV/PCE)​
(5:12) Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: (5:13) (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law. (5:14) Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
​


Confused or lying.... which is it?
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You are right on that detail about that verse. It was not, in that verse. But death reigned. In Adam all die. So what he did was imputed to them.
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
However, 'katastathesontai' is used for both sin and righteousness in v20, contrasting Adam and Christ because mankind is assigned or considered either way depending on if they are in Adam or in Christ.

It is not a big deal that he said it wasn't imputed then, because death still reigned and one act was charged to all who follow, v15.

Imputing can be used any time the person did not perform the act himself. Christ's righteousness is imputed to us in the Gospel; we did not perform it ourselves.

Since death still reigned, I find the statement a little confusing. But its great material for desparate D'ists to use to find fault with others! they dont' have anything else going for them!
 
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SaulToPaul 2

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
However, 'katastathesontai' is used for both sin and righteousness in v20, contrasting Adam and Christ because mankind is assigned or considered either way depending on if they are in Adam or in Christ.

It is not a big deal that he said it wasn't imputed then, because death still reigned and one act was charged to all who follow, v15.

Imputing can be used any time the person did not perform the act himself. Christ's righteousness is imputed to us in the Gospel; we did not perform it ourselves.

Since death still reigned, I find the statement a little confusing. But its great material for desparate D'ists to use to find fault with others! they dont' have anything else going for them!
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:chuckle:
 
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DAN P

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
Sin was imputed to those people even though there was no law around as such. Imputed means it was showing in their account, and 'death reigned.'
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Hi and verse 13 says that sin cannot be imputed and DEATH did reign !!

Still AVOIDING how they were saved ??

Where is there ONE GOSPEL in Rom 5:14 , no way will you AVOID IT ??

You do it all the time and would have to ADMIT that there were 2 GOSPELS and have to AVOID SAYING what it means !!

Tell us why that ONE GOSPEL IN Rom 5:14 disappeared ??

A Greek scholar like you know , so tell us ?

Good Job !!

dan p
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
DAN P said:
Hi and verse 13 says that sin cannot be imputed and DEATH did reign !!

Still AVOIDING how they were saved ??

Where is there ONE GOSPEL in Rom 5:14 , no way will you AVOID IT ??

You do it all the time and would have to ADMIT that there were 2 GOSPELS and have to AVOID SAYING what it means !!

Tell us why that ONE GOSPEL IN Rom 5:14 disappeared ??

A Greek scholar like you know , so tell us ?

Good Job !!

dan p
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So you must have inside information on what christ preached while visiting hell. Go ahead.

Most of the time, danP, the question about the two gospels is about Gal 2, which is mishandled by all D'ists that I know.
 
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DAN P

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
So you must have inside information on what christ preached while visiting hell. Go ahead.

Most of the time, danP, the question about the two gospels is about Gal 2, which is mishandled by all D'ists that I know.
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, Hi and Rom 5:13 and 14 escapes you and I believe you !!


Have you looked at the Greek text of Gal 2:7 ??

Are the Greek ARTICLES USED in Gal 2:7 ??

Is the Greek Article TES used twice in Gal 2:7 , YES or NO !!

Why are they used , BECAUSE they point to a specific gospel ??

One THE GOSPEL of the UN-circumcision !!

One THE / TES Circumcision !!

Explain why ??

dan p
 
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I

Interplanner

Well-known member
Acts 2:27 KJV.

Now you might say he didn't preach there, but obviously he was there.

He did preach to spirits imprisoned since the cataclysm of Genesis.
 
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