Vast change? These two passages are not in the 'Alexandrian' texts. What does this mean? Bart assumes (as do others) that 'earlier' means 'likely or probability of being more correct.' The problem? It doesn't actually have to mean that. The Alexandrian texts could be culprit for this particular.Some of these variations show vast changes to the text, demonstrating that the Bible has literally been rewritten by unknown authors. I will offer two passages for discussion.
1. The woman taken in adultery.
2. The last chapter of Mark.
Please elaborate on your understanding regarding the passages above and how they do/do not show that the text of the Bible has been altered at will by unnamed authors.
Bottom line: Is either passage 'inconsistent' with the rest of the bible message? The answer to all problems ever listed is 'no.' Ehrman, as I've contested, does not see the unity of the scriptures. This means his whole education is based on 'differences' to the neglect of 'what is the same' and what is consistent with Christian doctrine. It had and continues to hurt him in analysis. If you read the Daniel Wallace piece I linked, you can see one of many professors who hold to their bible's and faith just fine with the same or better credentials. Another link discussing briefly in overview, where textual criticism is at today, if you'd like to read a bit. ChristianForums has also discussed a similar thread with a few very knowledgeable scholars' input (the family or cluster of manuscripts).