In the above verse, the word "body" is in the singular.
The determiner "our" precedes the word "body". The determiner "our" is a plural pronoun.
Therefore, was Paul referring to individual bodies of believers, or the one corporate body?
ECT Peter, Paul, and Division
- Thread starter SaulToPaul 2
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In the above verse, the word "body" is in the singular.
The determiner "our" precedes the word "body". The determiner "our" is a plural pronoun.
Therefore, was Paul referring to individual bodies of believers, or the one corporate body?
The greasy punk lies so much, he can't keep his story/"invention," straight:
"Already happened in 70AD"-greasy Craigie
Get off this site, Preterist Roman Catholic.
Good one, slick one....
"Spelling was never one of my strong points."-greasy Craigie
Get lost, you weasel-you just make things up, "inventing" them on the fly, to allegedly support your Roman Catholic Preterism.
Individual
If that's the case, then the proper grammar would be "our bodies".
How do you know that Paul wasn't speaking of the entire Body of Christ? That's what the King James suggests.
Interplanner
Well-known member
How do you know when that was done to the most holy place? When was Hebrews talking about and written?
Hebrews tells us:
(Heb 1:3) ...After he had provided purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty in heaven
Hebrews chp 9 gives specific details.
Hebrews was written after the cross.
The writer of Hebrews tells us the following:
(Heb 9:26) ... But he has appeared once for all at the culmination of the ages to do away with sin by the sacrifice of himself.
Also, there's that same phrase the Apostle Paul used "the culmination of the ages".
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Col 2
Sins blotted out for the Body of Christ before the day of atonement.
How?
Sins blotted out for the Body of Christ before the day of atonement.
How?
Col 2 doesn't say sins were blotted out, it says the handwriting of ordinances were blotted out.
(Col 2:14 KJV) Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
It was a process.
First He shed His blood by dying on the cross. Then He took His blood and presented it at the Mercy Seat in the Holy of Holies in Heaven as a one time sacrifice.
As our High Priest, He then returns, which marks the completion of the atonement.
(Heb 9:28) so Christ was sacrificed once to take away the sins of many; and he will appear a second time, not to bear sin, but to bring salvation to those who are waiting for him.
Heb 9:28 was fulfilled in 70AD
Interplanner
Well-known member
So just those people got salvation? No one else at any other time will?
All people, all time, all sins.
We were all changed in the twinkling of an eye (even though we weren't born yet)
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
The Body of Christ received the atonement already.
The rest receive it when Christ returns.
When and where?
Where in the Bible does it say the Body of Christ received the atonement?
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Where in the Bible does it say the Lord returned in 70ad?
I can do silly questions, too.
You cannot read Romans and Colossians and not think that the Body of Christ has had their sins blotted out...before the 2nd coming.
ClimateSanity
New member
At his resurrection.
"So, they were saved, but not technically until 70AD...It was a process...Why do you follow the teachings of fallible men, Mr. Whalen?...."-Tellalie
Craigie-the admitted Catholic Preterist.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
"By which ye were saved..."- Apostle Paul
He should have said "though not technically".
ToTellA Lie