ECT Omnipresence of Jesus

intojoy

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"go away and return to my place"

This is a clear sing of not being present everywhere; of not being omnipresent.


No it is not.
And you should not be offended by my questioning your faith because if I didn't care for you I would not question your faith.

YOUR statements seem to say that Jesus is not God. Is this what you believe captain?
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
YOUR statements seem to say that Jesus is not God. Is this what you believe captain?

Since the Lord Jesus did not possess the quality of being omnicient while on earth does that mean He is not God?:

"But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only" (Mt.24:36).​
 

intojoy

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Since the Lord Jesus did not possess the quality of being omnicient while on earth does that mean He is not God?:



"But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only" (Mt.24:36).​


No. Yeshua is God.

Corrected that error...that was easy
 

0scar

New member
No it is not.
And you should not be offended by my questioning your faith because if I didn't care for you I would not question your faith.

YOUR statements seem to say that Jesus is not God. Is this what you believe captain?

Did you read the OP?
This thread is demostrating that the supposed omnipresence of Jesus is a theologac need, because christians like you understand that denaying Jesus omnipresence is denaying Jesus deity. Do you think that denaying Jesus omnnipresence is denaying Jesus deity? Seems that you do.
But I have news for you. You denay Jesus non-omnipresence you are denaying Jesus humanity.

The Gospels and the NT teach that Jesus was fully divine and fully human. Do not denay it. The Gospels and the NT teach that Jesus was not omnipresent. Do you believe that they did teach Jesus omnipresent? I am still waiting some of you share with us such supposed teaching.

If you keep denaying Jesus humanity, you didnt know Him.
 

0scar

New member
I can see how you might think that especially if this is the first time you've ever looked at this particular passage (I think it is).

Yeshua is speaking to Israel here. What transpired in the first coming was a national rejection of His Messiaship on the accusation of performing miracles by demon possession in Mathew chapter 12.
Hosea is saying that because of the unpardonable sin committed by Israel in Matthew 12, that messiah rescinded His offer of the Messianic kingdom and will wait in heaven at the right hand of the Father until the Jews pray psalms 79-80, confess Isaiah 53, and ask God (Jehovah) to return.

Yeshua is not talking about omnipresence here, Hosea is not talking about omnipresence here, you are trying to build doctrine thru irrelevant context sir.

Hosea is not making a declaration on if Jesus is or not omnipresent. But the things he say makes clear that Jesus is not omnipresent. What is the first coming? If Jesus where omnipresent he is not coming but already being. If Jesus is waiting at Heaven, he is not here, but at Heaven waiting to retur.
Obviously Hosea has the vision of Jesus not being present on Earth. Jesus not being present everywhere is Jesus not being omnipresent.
 

intojoy

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Hosea is not making a declaration on if Jesus is or not omnipresent. But the things he say makes clear that Jesus is not omnipresent. What is the first coming? If Jesus where omnipresent he is not coming but already being. If Jesus is waiting at Heaven, he is not here, but at Heaven waiting to retur.

Obviously Hosea has the vision of Jesus not being present on Earth. Jesus not being present everywhere is Jesus not being omnipresent.


Hosea is pointing to Matthew chapter 12.

We both agree that Jesus is God.

We both agree that Jesus is limited when present before the resurrection.

I do not agree that Jesus is now not omnipresent/omniscient. I believe that Jesus/Holy Spirit/Father are all omniscient and omnipresent. The only time Jesus limited the omniscience/omnipresence (in order to be omniscient one HAS TO BE omnipresent) was at the virgin birth at which time God placed a self imposed limitation upon the Second Person of the Trinity. That self imposed limitation was not natural to the Second Person of the Trinity, it was a temporal self imposition for the purpose of taking upon Himself the weaknesses and temptations that man is susceptible to. If Yeshua (Jesus) had not self limited Himself in this way then the tempting of Him by the evil one would not have been equal as a man in comparison to humanity.

I do not agree with you if you think that Yeshua is not omniscient.

How can Yeshua be God if He is not all knowing?

How can God be all knowing if He is not omnipresent?

How can Yeshua be God if He is not co equal with the Father?

I'm glad we have cleared up our belief in the deity of yeshua.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
The only time Jesus limited the omniscience/omnipresence (in order to be omniscient one HAS TO BE omnipresent) was at the virgin birth at which time God placed a self imposed limitation upon the Second Person of the Trinity.

If the Lord Jesus was omnipresent before He put on flesh then explain why He would have to come to the earth to do that?:

" And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​

If the Lord Jesus was already here on the earth then it would be impossible that He came down from heaven.
 

intojoy

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If the Lord Jesus was omnipresent before He put on flesh then explain why He would have to come to the earth to do that?:



" And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​



If the Lord Jesus was already here on the earth then it would be impossible that He came down from heaven.


I really don't understand the motivation for such a question.

There has to be a misunderstanding going on here.

Is God omnipresent?

The answer is yes.
 

intojoy

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If the Lord Jesus was omnipresent before He put on flesh then explain why He would have to come to the earth to do that?:



" And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​



If the Lord Jesus was already here on the earth then it would be impossible that He came down from heaven.


You've really got to be kidding.

Why was it important for Yeshua to put on human flesh?
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
You've really got to be kidding.

Why was it important for Yeshua to put on human flesh?

This verse speaks of Him coming to earth before He put on a flesh and blood body:

" And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​

If the Lord Jesus was omnipresent before He put on flesh then why would He have to come down from heaven since, according to you, He was already on the earth?
 

0scar

New member
Hosea is pointing to Matthew chapter 12.

We both agree that Jesus is God.

We both agree that Jesus is limited when present before the resurrection.

I do not agree that Jesus is now not omnipresent/omniscient. I believe that Jesus/Holy Spirit/Father are all omniscient and omnipresent. The only time Jesus limited the omniscience/omnipresence (in order to be omniscient one HAS TO BE omnipresent) was at the virgin birth at which time God placed a self imposed limitation upon the Second Person of the Trinity. That self imposed limitation was not natural to the Second Person of the Trinity, it was a temporal self imposition for the purpose of taking upon Himself the weaknesses and temptations that man is susceptible to. If Yeshua (Jesus) had not self limited Himself in this way then the tempting of Him by the evil one would not have been equal as a man in comparison to humanity.

I do not agree with you if you think that Yeshua is not omniscient.

How can Yeshua be God if He is not all knowing?

How can God be all knowing if He is not omnipresent?

How can Yeshua be God if He is not co equal with the Father?

I'm glad we have cleared up our belief in the deity of yeshua.

Jesus all along the Gospels demostrates not being omnipresent. Only because the non-omnipresence can be interpreted as not being God, only becuase of that is that you insist in his omnipresence. You confirm the OP.
 

0scar

New member
There is not a single verse in the entire Bible yeaching that Jesus did limit his omnipresence. Actually there is not any sign of any omnipresence on Jesus.
 

0scar

New member
Hosea is not making a declaration on if Jesus is or not omnipresent. But the things he say makes clear that Jesus is not omnipresent. What is the first coming? If Jesus where omnipresent he is not coming but already being. If Jesus is waiting at Heaven, he is not here, but at Heaven waiting to retur.
Obviously Hosea has the vision of Jesus not being present on Earth. Jesus not being present everywhere is Jesus not being omnipresent.

In the Gospels there is not one single sign of Jesus being omnipresent.
In the Gospels Jesus always is in a specific place, clearly identified and no where else.
In the Gospels if Jesus wants to be somewhere else, he travel.
In the Gospels if the disciples dont know where he is, they look for him until found him.
In the Gospels, if the jew want to see Jesus they go where he is.
In the Gospels, if the jew want to arrest Jesus, they go after him where he is.
In the Gospels Jesus is crucified and he was at the cross.
In the Gospels, Jesus died and is carried into the sepulcre.
In the Gospels Jesus resurrect and the women found empty the sepulcre where he was
In the Gospels Jesus rose to Heaven from Earth
In the Gospels Jesus promessed to return to Earth from Heaven.
 
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