Just One Gospel?

[Apollos]

Paul had only ONE gospel that he preached to EVRYONE...

Paul had only ONE gospel that he preached to EVRYONE...

Jerry –

I continue in this post to sweep up some points that need to be addressed.

I have already answered the weak points that you made of which you are so proud.

Actually, you are doing a dismal job of keeping up with me. Anyone can look back and easily see that your are in denial and in an avoidance mode.

Where is your “answer” to my exegesis of Romans 16:26-26? It is non-existant.

Where is your reply to my remarks about John 18:36 and the kingdom, and how all passages that speak of the kingdom must harmonize? Oops – you must have forgotten about that one, huh?

Where is your “answer” to Mark 9:1 which is typical of all “physical kingdom” seekers to ignore? Oops again!!

And your reply to my exegesis of Hebrews 5 & 6 is pathetic. All you offered was another round of “It must be saying… blah, blah, blah” – two baptisms you hand picked to eliminate and tie into your brand of “theology” while begging the question. You never told us whether “faith toward God” and “eternal judgment” were to be forsaken as well – were they? You made no appeal to context, and you made no application of the latter part of chapter 5 and how it defines what is being said in the first part of chapter 6 – Because of this…. Uh-oh, it got overlooked too !

In short, you are offering us what you have… nothing! I can give a plenitude of other examples of what you are not saying, but you will deny them as you will these. So I intend to continue enjoying seeing YOU suffer in… SILENCE !

You think that by taking figurative language and making it to be understood "literally"that you can make the "gift" of eternal life something that one has to "work" for.

This was said in reference to John 6:29 where Jesus say that believing on him who God has sent is the “work of God”. What is this “figurative” language of ? What is the “figure”?

It is easy to see in 6:53 that “flesh and blood” are used figuratively, but HOW is this done in verse 29 ???

In verse 31 Jesus said “Our fathers did eat manna in the desert”. Is this “figurative” also
Jerry? What is it figurative of??? Tell us Mr. Figurative !

Your lame argument is that verse 53 is figurative, therefore verse 29 is. How sad – that does not figure! You need to pay attention to something dispys know little about – CONTEXT!
<<<*>>>

(I came here to debate what the thread states - “just one gospel ?”. There are other threads to debate water baptism. However, just so you know, 1 Cor 12:13 tells us it is by the direction of the one Holy Spirit that the lost are (water) baptized into the one body (the church). This is consistent with both the preaching and the practice of Paul throughout his ministry. There is only ONE baptism for the church today – water baptism for the remission of sins. This is the water baptism Jesus authorized for all nations in Matthew 28:18f.

Also, I do not belong to a denomination, nor do I have any handbook or creed. You presume these just as you presume all the things you read into scripture. For you, presumption and preconception is a way of life. But enough said of things off topic…)
<<<*>>>

Those of us who have received the Spirit of God know that eternal life has been "freely" given to us who believe…

Lol – no Jerry, no. What you really mean is that those who have heard the word, believe, and REPENT have eternal life. This is what you believe, and yet continually deny this and deny yourself as well in a desperate attempt to cling to “easy-believe-ism”. When will you have the intellectual honesty to address your “belief DICHOTOMY” that I have pointed out to you time and time again? Oh I no, it is just another of the multiple things you refuse to address in our discussion.

This brings us to your current and most flimsy “argument” for 2 gospels: Identity versus Purpose in preaching.

That is the gospel that went to the Jews,and it is plain that the heart and soul of that gospel was in regard to the "identity" of the Lord Jesus. (-and-)

However,in the present dispensation we are to preach another gospel,and the heart and soul of the gospel we are to preach concerns the "purpose" of the death of the Lord Jesus upon the Cross.

Although both statements “beg the question”, let’s boil this “argument” down to the essential parts so we can observe how badly it “smells”…

-Peter’s preaching centered on Christ’s identity
--Paul’s preaching centered on the purpose of the Christ’s death
--- Therefore, Peter and Paul preached different gospels.

Huh? What?? Seriously, is this the best you have to offer to “prove” that there were 2 different gospels being preached. How laughable !

I hope you don’t notice that others speak of the humanity of Christ, and His divinity, otherwise before the day is over you’ll have a list of 2-3 dozen “gospels” being preached because others focused on separate topics contained in the one true gospel !!

There is a difference between preaching that "Jesus is the Christ" and preaching that "while we were enemies we were reconciled by the death" of the Lord Jesus Christ.

Sure, but it does not necessitate that there were 2 different gospels being preached, but rather that different information from the SAME gospel was being preached.
Do you really base your faith on desperate “arguments” such as these ??? How frightening !

One last and inportant point to make before I close this post –
The gospel Paul preached to the Jews was the same gospel he preached to the Gentiles.
Let’s begin this study in Acts 13:13…
Verse 13 Paul and company are at Antioch of Pisidia – they have entered the synagogue on the sabbath.
Verse 16 – Paul begins to preach to Two groups – “Men of Israel” (Jews) and those that “fear God” (Gentile proselytes).
Verse 17 shows Paul recognizes a distinction in those gathered by the way he addresses them – “The of this people Israel chose our fathers…”
Verse 26 reaffirms this was a Jew/Gentile audience.
Verses 21-29 “identify” who Jesus was and that the prophets wrote about Him.
Verses 27-31 Paul covers the D/B/&R of Christ.
Verse 32 – Paul states that his message is the gospel (“glad tidings”).
Verse 33-37 deals with prophecies of Christ’s ressurection. (Christ’s death on the cross was ALWAYS in the “plan”, a part of the gospel ! Christ’s rejection/death did not require a back-up plan – it WAS the plan!)
Verse 38 – Remission of sins is proclaimed through this man. (Looks like Paul has let the “cat out of the bag” on the “purpose”of His death with the Jews in attendance!!) Verse 39 – Through this man everyone that believeth is justified.
Verse 44 – “Almost the whole city gathered to hear the word of God.” – this in a city of the Gentiles !!
Verse 45 – The Jews blaspheme b/c of their jealousy.
Verse 46 – The “word of God” was to be spoken to the Jews first, but now… “We turn to the Gentiles…”
Verse 47 – Isaiah 49:6 is quoted showing that salvation for the Gentiles was PROPHESIED in the O.T. !
Verse 48 – The Gentiles there in attendance at this preaching of the word of God (see verse 44 again) were glad ! Paul’s message was not just for the Jews !
Verse 49 – “And the word of God was spread throughout the region.” SAME "word" went to both Jew and Gentile !

Clear, distinct, and irrefutable – Paul’s “word of God” was going to and continued to go to both Jew and Gentile. Only those with preconceived ideas will stumble at these truths in Acts 13 !

I will use Jerry’s own “proof text” of Acts 17 to illustrate these truths further in my next post.

 

[Jerry Shugart]

Apollos,

It is difficult to dicuss these things with those who refuse to believe what the Scriptures say.According to you:

However, just so you know, 1 Cor 12:13 tells us it is by the direction of the one Holy Spirit that the lost are (water) baptized into the one body (the church). This is consistent with both the preaching and the practice of Paul throughout his ministry.

The verse does not say that "it is by the direction of the Holy Spirit that the lost are (water baptized) into one body (the church)."

That is nothing but a gross perversion of Paul's words:

"For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body...the Body of Christ"(1Cor.12:13).

The believer receives "eternal life" when he is baptized into the Body of Christ:

"And this is the record, that God hath given to us eternal life, and this life is in his Son"(1Cor.5:11).

And it is the "Spirit" which giveth life,and not "water".The Lord Jesus said:

"It is the Spirit that giveth life; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life"(Jn.6:63).

According to the Lord Jesus those who "believe" are given eternal life.But of course you will not believe His words because they directly contrdict your ideas that it is "water" which giveth life.Here are His words so that you can ignore them or attempt to pervert them like you did Paul's words at 2Cor.12:13:

"He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life"(Jn.5:24).

Of couse according to you the Lord Jesus must have forgotten to say anything about a requirement to submit to the rite of water baptism in order to receive everlasting life.Too bad that you were not there to "correct" Him when He said those words.

Sure, but it does not necessitate that there were 2 different gospels being preached, but rather that different information from the SAME gospel was being preached.

So now you will at least willing to admit that "different information" was being preached to the Jews than was being preached to the churches which Paul founded.

But you will still not admit that there were two different gospels being preached even though Paul names two different gospels:

“But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter”(Gal.2:7).

You are able to subject your mind to the delusion that Paul was not speaking of two different gospels even though he singled out the Gentiles as receiving a different gospel that the one that was preached to the Jews:

“And I went up by revelation,and communicated unto them that gospel which I preach among the Gentiles,but privately to them who were of reputation,lest by any means I should run,or had run,in vain”(Gal.2:2).

This certainly indicates that the gospel which Paul was preaching to the Gentiles was different than the message which the other Apostles had been preaching.After all,Paul had previously been with other Apostles while he preached a “gospel”(Acts9:27-29) so there would be no need to go to Jerusalem in order to communicate that same gospel to them.Therefore,it is evident that the Lord Jesus gave to Paul a “gospel” that he was to preach to the Gentiles and that “gospel” was something new and distinct from that which the other Apostles had been preaching.

But even though you admit that different messages were being preached to the Jews and the churches which Paul founded you will not admit that there were two different gospels.Different messages but the same exact "good news" or "glad tidings".

Again,you prove that you are willing to subject your mind to delusions so that you can cling to the teachings invented by man.

Where is your “answer” to my exegesis of Romans 16:26-26? It is non-existant.

We can see from your remarks on Romans 16:26 that you have lost touch with reality.You said:

Prophetic writings – okay. But “writings of the prophets” is still a correct rendering.
But writings of the NT – I don’t think so! Show me something from the context of the passage to indicate that Paul is speaking of NT “scripture” and not the OT – particularly his own writing(s).

Since you believe that the "prophetic writings" refers to the OT Scriptures then you must believe that this "mystery" truth was written in the OT that had been around for hundreds of years at the same time Paul wrote that they "were kept secret since the world began"!

Imagine that!The "mystery" had been revealed hundreds of years earlier but Paul says that it had "been kept secret since the world began".He says that it is "now made manifest" or "now made known" but you say that it had been made known hundreds of years earlier!

Again,you prove that you are able to subject your mind to delusions!

Where is your reply to my remarks about John 18:36 and the kingdom, and how all passages that speak of the kingdom must harmonize? Oops – you must have forgotten about that one, huh?

I already addressed your attempt to pervert the words at John 18:36 but you evidently were so embarrased that you obviouly put it out of your mind.Again,you quote the words of the Lord Jesus where He says that "My kingdom is not of this world" in your effort to prove that the "kingdom of heaven" was never meant to be set up on the earth.But when I quoted His words that follow you had nothing to say.He said,"but now is My kingdom not of here"(Jn.18"36).

Peter sure thought that the kingdom would be set up on the earth and "restored" to Israel (Acts1:6).And Peter was with the Lord Jesus forty days when He was "speaking of the things pertaining to the kingdom of God"(Acts1:3).How many days were you with Him when He spoke of these things,Apollos?Are we suppose to believe that you know more about the kingdom than did Peter?The OT Scriptures are full of references to the kingdom of God,and the Lord Jesus opened Peter's understanding that he might understand the OT Scriptures.He thought that the kingdom would be set up on the earth,but you seem to think that you know more than Peter.You even quote a "part" of a Scripture in order to attempt to prove that the kingdom was not to be set up on earth but you conveniently leave out the last part where the Lord Jesus says that now is My kingdom not from here.

In His grace,--Jerry
"Dispensationalism Made Easy"
http://midacts.net/studies/shugart-..._made_easy.html
[

 

[elected4ever]

The meaning of the word dispensation is stewardship. Paul was given the stewardship of the gospel to the gentiles(uncircumcision) The 11 were given the stewardship of the gospel to the Jews (circumcision) Two administrations of the same gospel. Not two gospels. Jerry, did you bother to look up the meaning of the word dispensation?

 

[Jerry Shugart]

The meaning of the word dispensation is stewardship. Paul was given the stewardship of the gospel to the gentiles(uncircumcision) The 11 were given the stewardship of the gospel to the Jews (circumcision) Two administrations of the same gospel.

elected4ever,

Did you bother to even see what the "dispensation of God's grace" is in relation to?The Scriptual evidence makes it plain that the “dispensation of grace” is in regard to preaching the “gospel of grace”:

“If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me toward you…”(Eph.3:2).

“Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God” (Col.1:25).

“…a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me” (1Cor.9:17).

The “dispensation” that was committed to Paul is in regard to “God’s grace”,a “ministry” and a “gospel”:

“…the ministry, which I have received of the Lord Jesus, to testify the gospel of the grace of God” (Acts20:24).

Paul made known a new gospel which had never before been revealed: “But now the righteousness of God apart from law is revealed…even the righteousness of God which is by the faithfulness of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all who believe…being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus” (Ro.3:21,22).

The "gospel of grace" cannot be preached apart from the facts concerning the "purpose" of His death--that the believer is "redeemed with the precious blood of Christ"(1Pet.1:18,19).

That was not the message that was preached to the Jews during the Acts period.That "gospel" was in regard to the "identity" of Jesus,that He is the Christ,the Son of God.

On the day of Pentecost the Apostle Peter used the facts of the death,burial and resuurection of the Lord Jesus in order to prove that He is the Messiah (Acts2:24),and then he sums up his argument by saying:

"Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ"(Acts2:36).

After Paul was converted,the first thing that he did was to preach this same gospel in the synagogues of the Jews:

"And straightway he preached Christ in the synagogues, that he is the Son of God...proving that this is the very Christ"(Acts9:20,22).

That was the same gospel which Paul continued to preach to the Jews:

"And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures, Opening and alleging, that Christ must needs have suffered, and risen again from the dead; and that this Jesus, whom I preach unto you, is Christ"(Acts17:2,30).

That is the same message that Apollos preached to the Jews:

"For he mightily convinced the Jews, and that publicly, shewing by the scriptures that Jesus is Christ"(Acts18:28).

That is the gospel that went to the Jews,and it is plain that the heart and soul of that gospel was in regard to the "identity" of the Lord Jesus.Never once was the "gospel of grace" preached to the Jews during the Acts period.But it was the gospel that was preached to the churches which Paul founded.

Therefore,unless you are unable to distinguish between a gospel that is centered on the "identity" of the Lord Jesus from a gospel that is centered on the "purpose" of the death of the Lord Jesus then you should understand that these gospels were not the same.

Or perhaps you might fall back on the "fiction" created by Apollos when he admits that the messages were different but the gospel was the same.In other words,according to his "logic" the "glad tidings"(gospel) that was preached to the churches Paul founded was not the same "glad tidings"(gospel) that was preached to the Jews,but they are the same "glad tidings"(gospel).

Just another example of someone subjecting his mind to delusions.

Not two gospels. Jerry, did you bother to look up the meaning of the word dispensation?

If you would have bothered to learn exactly what Paul's words in regard to the "dispensation of grace" then I am sure that you would not have brought this subject up,and that is because it proves that there were two separate and distinct gospels being preached during the Acts period.

In His grace,--Jerry
"Dispensationalism Made Easy"
http://midacts.net/studies/shugart-..._made_easy.html

 

[Apollos]

One plan - ONE gospel - as God chose from the beginning...

One plan - ONE gospel - as God chose from the beginning...

Jerry –

Thanks for your reply. TWO things UP first…

The first thing I expected to read, after all of your previous “chest pounding”, was how John 6:29 is “figurative”. We all could see how verse 54 is, but verse 29 is not figurative and therefore, believing IS a WORK for man to do.

The second thing is more on John 18:36 and harmonizing all passages that speak of the “kingdom”.

I already addressed your attempt to pervert the words at John 18:36 but you evidently were so embarrased that you obviouly put it out of your mind. –and-
But when I quoted His words that follow you had nothing to say.

First, I am embarrassed… for YOU!

Second, as far as what I had to say, see my post #328 of June 19 . I bet you were so busy looking for perhaps a 3rd gospel you missed this.

See my word study & consult the NASB – “as it is…” - read Mr. Thayer: Greek word nun under part 2 – see his definition for John 18:36.
“Now” you know His kingdom is not of this world.

Second, I asked why “earthly kingdom” promoters like YOU never deal with Mark 9:1 –

“ And he said unto them, Verily I say unto you, There are some here of them that stand [by], who shall in no wise taste of death, till they see the kingdom of God come with power.” ?

It is just too typical of physical kingdom promoters to hide in fear of this passage !!!

Those who say this kingdom that was “AT HAND” did not come are those who make Jesus out to be a liar and the Holy Spirit a buffoon!
You have de-throned the Christ and He is King of… NOTHING !!!

For all of your “lip”, ALL the passages about His “kingdom” must harmonize ! You cannot do this !

Peter sure thought that the kingdom would be set up on the earth and "restored" to Israel…

It is more than obvious there were things about the kingdom Peter did not understand – otherwise Peter would not have been asking questions, huh?
<<<*>>>

From your latest post…

The believer receives "eternal life" when he is baptized into the Body of Christ…
(then Jerry later said – as he has many times previously)
According to the Lord Jesus those who "believe" are given eternal life.

Which is it Jerry – they are saved when they believe or when they are baptized??? You have been much too vague on your brand of salvation. Tell us at what “point” the sinner is finally saved.

Then you offered…

"It is the Spirit that giveth life; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life"(Jn.6:63).

This verse you offered tells us the WORDS are spirit and life. So when I tell you in 1 Corinthians 12:13 that it is by the direction (His words) of the Holy Spirit we are told how to be saved by (water) baptism (cf. 1 Cor. 6:11), you know I tell the truth.

Then you offered…

"He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life"(Jn.5:24).

“He that hears my word…” – Which part of His word Jerry? Or does He mean ALL of His word? Maybe you believe it is just the parts you want such as – hear, believe, repent, and “baptism”… then you can exclude confess and (water) baptism. You don’t get to pick and choose! No ONE verse tells us everything we need to know and do to be saved! What a DICHOTOMY you have created for yourself !
<<<*>>>

In my last post I said…

(Apollos) - Sure, but it [“identity” versus “purpose” preaching]does not necessitate that there were 2 different gospels being preached, but rather that different information from the SAME gospel was being preached.

Any 3rd grader can understand what I said. In true bi-gospel desperation you misrepresent my statement by saying…

So now you will at least willing to admit that "different information" was being preached to the Jews than was being preached to the churches which Paul founded.

Lol !! You want to INFER from this that it was information that one group received that the other did not, when I said that Paul & Peter placed emphasis on different topics that came from the SAME gospel. But one misrepresentation of me by you was not enough, you then said…

But even though you admit that different messages were being preached to the Jews and the churches which Paul founded…

Different messages ??!! No, I said different information – different topics contained within the SAME gospel. How laughable your desperation is as you continued to twist what I said – the ame way you twist scripture !! What is this penchant dispys have to parse every word and every scripture? The NT is a collection of all pertinent information to save man. Dispys see baptism as one gospel, faith as one gospel, laying on of hands as a gospel, and judgment as yet another gospel. They have a separate “gospel” for each and every NT topic – lol !

Peter & Paul had the SAME gospel but due to differences in their audiences often emphasized one topic over the other – you know, as preachers sometimes do today for a given audience ! But stop misrepresenting me - it is dishonest !!!
<<<*>>>

We previously discussed Galatians 2:7 - “But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter...” of which you left off verse 8… again… which verse further explains what is being said in verse 7 – that being Paul was working with the Gentiles and Peter with the Jews. You offer nothing new to change anyone’s mind to your biased reading. Again, I will offer the NLT rendering for you, which I previously said knocks this one “out of the park” !

Galatians 2: 7 - “They saw that God had given me the responsibility of preaching the Good News to the Gentiles, just as he had given Peter the responsibility of preaching to the Jews. 8 For the same God who worked through Peter for the benefit of the Jews worked through me for the benefit of the Gentiles.” NLT
<<<*>>>

Now we come to…

“And I went up by revelation,and communicated unto them that gospel which I preach among the Gentiles,but privately to them who were of reputation,lest by any means I should run,or had run,in vain”(Gal.2:2).

When reading this verse with dispy bias, there is only one conclusion that can be made – the wrong one! When read recognizing the context and events, the reader can know the truth.

The problem was (Acts 15:5) that a few from Jerusalem said all must be circumcised and keep the law of Moses. Paul was told (by revelation) to go to Jerusalem BECAUSE of this problem – could the Apostles in Jerusalem really be teaching disciples to observe the law of Moses??!!

Apostle Paul compared his “notes” with the Apostles at Jerusalem – it had been about 14 years since Paul was last there – see Gal. 2:1. If Paul’s gospel did not match the other Apostle’s gospel, then Paul’s ministry would have been in vain – Paul would have been found to be in error.

The conclusion: Those teaching circumcision and the Law were called “false brethren” – Gal. 2:4. The Apostles at Jerusalem did not tell Paul anything that wasn’t already known – Gal. 2:6. But all the Apostles were in “fellowship” – Gal. 2:9, something the existence of 2 different gospels would preclude. In fact, both Peter and Paul recognized keeping the Law was a “yoke”, “bondage” by which neither Jew or Gentile would be made free. – Acts 15:10, Gal. 2:4. They were in agreement !

Peter concludes by saying:
Acts 15:11 – “But we believe that we shall be saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, in like manner as they.” Jew and Gentile are saved in “like manner” = the SAME way !!!!!!!!!!!!!
Oops – no room here for bi-gospelism!

And if all of this were not enough, James then gets up and reminds the audience that the salvation of the Gentiles had been PROPHESIED - Acts 15:15 !
<<<*>>>

We now return to Romans 16:25-26 - I previously said…

Apollos - Prophetic writings – okay. But “writings of the prophets” is still a correct rendering.
But [does this refer to] writings of the NT – I don’t think so! Show me something from the context of the passage to indicate that Paul is speaking of NT “scripture” and not the OT – particularly his own writing(s).

I asked for something from the context (Romans 16) to show that verse 26 could possibly be referring to any NT writings – what did I get? Nothing – b/c you have nothing to offer! There is nothing in the passage to suggest your ridiculous proposal. Here is what you said…

Since you believe that the "prophetic writings" refers to the OT Scriptures then you must believe that this "mystery" truth was written in the OT…

…Paul says that it had "been kept secret since the world began".He says that it is "now made manifest" or "now made known"…

This does not answer what I asked. If fact I asked you to give me ANY verse in the NT where Paul makes reference to his writings or ANY NT passage as “scripture”. You failed – again.

But you have brought up a point (again) that I will be happy to explain (again)…

Galatians 3:8 – “And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand unto Abraham, [saying,] In thee shall all the nations be blessed.” ASV

Paul says the gospel was preached to Abraham. Paul says that as far back as Abraham that God had planned to save ALL nations by faith in Christ – this was the plan and the “glad tidings” from the beginning! Paul says the “scriptures” prophesied of this coming salvation.

HOW God was going “justify” the nations was the “mystery”. (A mystery is simply that which has not been revealed.) The part of the gospel that was yet to be revealed is what Paul calls the “mystery”.

In Romans 16:25-26 – “Now to him that is able to establish you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery which hath been kept in silence through times eternal, 26 but now is manifested, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the eternal God, is made known unto all the nations unto obedience of faith…”

Paul tells us his gospel (“my gospel”) was according to those unrevealed things which had been kept secret – but now those things have been revealed. AND Paul’s gospel is ALSO “made known” by what the prophets had written – we can look back and understand what they were writing about in reference to the gospel now that ALL of the ONE gospel has been revealed. Paul’s gospel was spoken of by the prophets – they wrote about it!

Look back at the list of passages I provided for John W. No one fully understood those passages until things were revealed. We can look at them now and say – Oh yeah, I understand that now. Two gospels weren’t needed – the ONE gospel, God’s ONE plan just needed to be fully revealed to man for him to fully understand the salvation God planned from the dawn of time – cf. 1 Peter 1:10-12.

This is also what Paul talked about in 1 Corinthians 2:7-11.
Verse 7 – We are speaking God’s hidden/unrevealed/”mystery” wisdom – planned before the world.
Verse 8 – Even earth’s “best” (princes) did not understand - else God’s plan (Christ dying for man’s sins) would have been prevented.
Verse 9 – No one comprehended what God had prepared for His own.
Verse 10 – The Spirit has revealed the unknown plans (mystery) to man.
Verse 11 - There was no way for man to comprehend the spiritual plan unless the Spirit revealed it.

One plan – One gospel – from the beginning !

 

[Jerry Shugart]

Apollos,

After perverting the Scriptures you are forced to pervert your own words.Previously you said:

Sure, but it does not necessitate that there were 2 different gospels being preached, but rather that different information from the SAME gospel was being preached.

According to your own words "different information" was being preached to the Jews than was being preached to the churches which Paul founded.In other words,the "good news" (gospel) that was being preached to one group was different from the "good news" (gospel) being preached to the other group.Therefore,if we use our "reasoning" we can realize that two different and distinct gospel were being preached to the two different groups.

But you must now pervert your own words in order to make what you said previously.You say:

You want to INFER from this that it was information that one group received that the other did not, when I said that Paul & Peter placed emphasis on different topics that came from the SAME gospel. But one misrepresentation of me by you was not enough...

It is you who is misrepresenting what you yourself said.You did not say that they placed "emphasis on different topics",but instead you said that "different information" was being preached to the different groups.If it was "different" then it is not the same!

But this is obviously above your reasoning power.

Earlier you said:

However, just so you know, 1 Cor 12:13 tells us it is by the direction of the one Holy Spirit that the lost are (water) baptized into the one body (the church). This is consistent with both the preaching and the practice of Paul throughout his ministry.

Let us look at 1Corinthians 12:13 so we can see how your desperation has led you to pervert the words that Paul wrote:

"For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit"(1Cor.12:13).

As anyone who is not blinded an see,it is the Spirit which baptizes the believer into the Body of Christ.But to those like you who have no problem perverting the Scriptures you say that this verse "tells us it is by the direction of the one Holy Spirit that the lost are (water) baptized into the one body (the church)"!!!

Can you not see that you are twisting the meaning of this verse in order to attempt to prove that the believer is water baptized into the Body of Christ?

It is impossible to discuss the things of the Lord with someone who has no problem perverting any Scripture which does not line up with his ideas.Next you run to Thayer so that you can pervert his words.The Greek word "nun" at John 18:36 means "but now,now however,as it is".But here is what you say that the words in that verse says according to Thayer:

- read Mr. Thayer: Greek word nun under part 2 – see his definition for John 18:36.
“Now” you know His kingdom is not of this world.

Thayer never says that the meaning is "now you know".That is nothing but a perversion of his words.

Despite the fact that Peter was with the Lord Jesus many days after His resurrection while "speaking of things pertaining to the kingdom of God"(Acts1:3) you must force your mind into believing that he was mistaken for expecting an earthly kingdom.You say:

It is more than obvious there were things about the kingdom Peter did not understand – otherwise Peter would not have been asking questions, huh?

What "questions" did he ask,Mr.Perversion?He asked one question and only one question,and that was in regard to "when" the kingdom would be restored to Israel.But you would have him being wrong thinking that the kingdom would be restored to Israel in the first place,and then you would have him mistaken for thinking that it would be an earthly kingdom.Imagine that,Peter had been with the Lord while He explained the things about the kingdom but Peter did not even realize that it was only a spiritual kingdom.Peter was confused but you are not.

I no longer have the time or patience to continue a discussion with someone who will pervert any verse in order to cling to their fables and doctrines invented by men.You do not have the ability to discuss these things in an intelligent manner.

In His grace,--Jerry

 

[Apollos]

Jerry says - "Blah - blah - blah !"

Jerry says - "Blah - blah - blah !"

Jerry –

I understand the frustration you have in not being able to answer my arguments. But I do not understand the bitterness and mean-spirited attitude you constantly display. You show it toward anyone who disagrees with you. I conclude that this must be a by-product of your “theology”. This is further evidence that “bi-gospelism” it not of God.

According to your own words "different information" was being preached to the Jews than was being preached to the churches which Paul founded.

Nah! You are still misrepresenting me intentionally to make a lame point for your theology. After my last post my point is even clearer. All of the NT churches received the same information from the SAME gospel – although different topics or emphasis at different times. You strain yourself to misrepresent me as you do Paul and Peter for the sake of your false teaching.

But this is obviously above your reasoning power.

This is another example of your hate !

Let us look at 1Corinthians 12:13…

Yes let’s do! I gave you a lesson with John 6:63 and how the Spirit’s WORDS are “spirit & life”. Are you suggesting that the Holy Spirit works outside of the written word? If so, we can have a debate on HOW the HS works today. Are you really ready to go there Jerry – spiritual gifts and all?
Second, 1 Corinthians 12:13 IS about water baptism – this is consistent with both the preaching and practice of Paul! This passage is NOT about some form of “HS” baptism that you have not yet as defined for us in hocus-pocus land.

Next you run to Thayer… Greek word "nun" at John 18:36 means… "but now, now however, as it is".

In reference to Mr. Thayer and his scholarly work you strained yet again to misrepresent what I said, but here you did more poorly than with Jn. 18:36. “Now” or “as it is…”Christ’s kingdom is not of this world - it never will be. I was not changing what Mr. Thayer said nor did I add to his definition –specifically see my post #328 – the part in BLUE. It is either your haste or poor reading skills that have lead you to another mistake.
For all of your clammering about Acts 1:6, you can not deny that, even after spending that Peter was still asking questions about the kingdom! Peter did not know all there was to know about the kingdom. That is why the Lord sent the HS in Acts 2 to guide them into all truth – cf. John 14:26, 16:13. Peter and the other apostles did not have it “all” as of yet !
There are still a number of things you are in denial over Jerry. Things that you just can not make yourself come to terms with. Let’s take a moment here to look at some of those things that your brand of “theology” can not answer – nor will it ever be able to. Here is the list – and this is just from my last post alone:
John 6:29 – I guess you tired of pounding your chest. You neglected to tell us how ”…this is the WORK of God, that you believe…” is used figuratively in this verse. In spite of your “copy-cat” antics in your last post, tell us Mr. Figurative, how is this figurative ??? lol.
Mark 9:1 – Some standing there were to see the kingdom come! What’s your answer? Your “theology” continues to make the Lord a liar (false prophet) and the HS a buffoon.
Mark 9:1 – It is impossible for your “theology” to harmonize all the scriptures about the kingdom!
John 5:24 – Which PART of His word tells us all we need to know about salvation? Which ONE verse is all encompassing to tell all about salvation?
John 5:24 – When will you attempt to explain the DICHOTOMY you have created for yourself with easy-believe-ism and works ?? How many times would someone have to ask you to explain your obvious hypocrisy here ???
Galatians 2:2 – No comments from you on my excellent exegesis.
Acts 15 – No comments from you on my excellent exegesis – all Apostles were in agreement!
Acts 15:11 – No comments from you on my remarks on how Jews & Gentiles are saved the SAME way !
Acts 15:15 – No comment from you about James comments about Gentile salvation prophesy.
My conclusion on Acts 15/Galatians 2 – No comment from you. But then what can you say?
Galatians 3:8 – You made no comment. Tell us about the “gospel” preached to Abraham!
Romans 16:25-26 – I can’t get you back on topic. Where is the context for you to claim that “scriptures” speaks of here are Paul’s own writings on any NT writings? You ain’t got any!
I said the “mystery” was the hidden part of the ONE gospel – no comment from you.
1 Corinthians 2:7-11 – It was always God’s plan for Christ to die on the cross. This was the HOW of God’s plan to bless/save all nations – the hidden part of the ONE gospel. Where is your reply?? Aren’t you tired of getting “kicked in the teeth” ???

Jerry, you are avoiding most of what I have to say. Instead, you quibble and touch on remarks that you can “fuss” about while making no point. You are truly in denial! You constantly display bitterness and a mean-spirit – are all dispys like you? (Why haven’t your dispy “brothers” admonished you to shape up? Dr. Brumley or John W. – where are you??) Your anger and frustration will save no one. They are certainly not fruits of the Spirit! Lose the hate !

I no longer have the time or patience to continue a discussion with someone who will pervert any verse in order to cling to their fables and doctrines invented by men.You do not have the ability to discuss these things in an intelligent manner.

This is the whining of a coward in the “theological gutter”. Looking above at the list of items above that you refuse to address almost makes this laughable, except this is too serious to laugh about.

Take off your “bi-gospels” Jerry! Stop reading the scriptures through your “bi-gospels” before it is too late. It is up to you whether we continue the discussion. But I expect you to actually participate next time - if we continue.

 

[Sir Cast-a-Lot]

i will comment on mark 9:1

jesus is telling the apostles that some will not die until the 1000 year reign comes into effect. but in reality all the apostles died, because god cut off israel and postponed the kingdom for israel until the fullness of the gentiles comes in.

 

[Jerry Shugart]

Apollos,

You say:

I understand the frustration you have in not being able to answer my arguments. But I do not understand the bitterness and mean-spirited attitude you constantly display.

I am not frustrated that I cannot answer your points because I have answered them.But it does no good as far as you are concerned because you will not believe what the Scriptures say.

As far as my so-called mean-spirited attitude,all I can say is that I am merely doing what Paul says to do in regard to those who teach "fables" as you do:

"Preach the word; be instant in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort with all long suffering and doctrine. For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears; And they shall turn away their ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables"(2Tim.4:2-4).

Whenever you finally believe the "gospel of grace" then perhaps you will be able to carry on an intelligent conversation in regard to the things of God.But until you cease from your mistaken belief that one has to do "works" for salvation then you will remain the "natural man":

"But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned"(1Cor.2:13).

 

[Apollos]

On Mark 9:1...

On Mark 9:1...

Cast -A-Lot -

Let's move this discussion of Mark 9:1 over to the "kingdom of heaven" thread...

Catch you over there.

 

[Apollos]

Your mean-spirited "theology"...

Your mean-spirited "theology"...

Jerry –

You can run but you can not hide.

I am not frustrated that I cannot answer your points because I have answered them.

A look at my post #347 above will show this statement to be as false as your “theology”. Allow me to point out just –2- examples from my list of 12 items (in blue) there that you have failed to deal with in any form of fashion.

John 6:29 - To believe is a WORK. You said this is “figurative” language. I asked you to show me HOW this is “figurative”. When/where did you do this?

Mark 9:1 – Jesus said that some alive at that time would see the kingdom come. When/where did you answer this question?

Hey Jerry, all you have to do is give me the POST # and date for just these -2- items, then all of the readers here can go back and read it. Then I will apologize to you.

But until you do this, I will continue to say that you are frustrated with your errant “theology” that generates hate, and that you are in denial of the facts which is displayed by your intellectual dishonesty!

As far as my so-called mean-spirited attitude,all I can say is that I am merely doing what Paul says to do…

Really? Hmmm…

Paul said – "Preach the word… reprove, rebuke, exhort with all long suffering and doctrine”. 2 Tim.4:2-4

Jerry says – “But this is obviously above your reasoning power.” -and-
“You do not have the ability to discuss these things in an intelligent manner.”

You can not honestly say that your remarks are some sort of “rebuke” with “long-suffering” .
But I know your remarks are with “doctrine” – the hateful and mean-spirited “doctrine” of your dispy theology that the Bible knows nothing about.

Paul knew nothing about this type of hate, even when he knew the people he was writing to were in error !

Whenever you finally believe the "gospel of grace" then perhaps you will be able to carry on an intelligent conversation…

Where are you hiding the “grace” of your “theology”? With all the answers you don’t have?? Your “theology” of bi-gospelism just keeps the love coming and coming, doesn’t it? Save your condescension – it is you that has answered so little!

“Well did Isaiah prophesy of you hypocrites, as it is written, This people honoreth me with their lips, But their heart is far from me.” – Mark 7:6

 

[elected4ever]

Jerry –

You can run but you can not hide.

A look at my post #347 above will show this statement to be as false as your “theology”. Allow me to point out just –2- examples from my list of 12 items (in blue) there that you have failed to deal with in any form of fashion.

John 6:29 - To believe is a WORK. You said this is “figurative” language. I asked you to show me HOW this is “figurative”. When/where did you do this?

Mark 9:1 – Jesus said that some alive at that time would see the kingdom come. When/where did you answer this question?

Hey Jerry, all you have to do is give me the POST # and date for just these -2- items, then all of the readers here can go back and read it. Then I will apologize to you.

But until you do this, I will continue to say that you are frustrated with your errant “theology” that generates hate, and that you are in denial of the facts which is displayed by your intellectual dishonesty!



Really? Hmmm…

Paul said – "Preach the word… reprove, rebuke, exhort with all long suffering and doctrine”. 2 Tim.4:2-4

Jerry says – “But this is obviously above your reasoning power.” -and-
“You do not have the ability to discuss these things in an intelligent manner.”

You can not honestly say that your remarks are some sort of “rebuke” with “long-suffering” .
But I know your remarks are with “doctrine” – the hateful and mean-spirited “doctrine” of your dispy theology that the Bible knows nothing about.

Paul knew nothing about this type of hate, even when he knew the people he was writing to were in error !

Where are you hiding the “grace” of your “theology”? With all the answers you don’t have?? Your “theology” of bi-gospelism just keeps the love coming and coming, doesn’t it? Save your condescension – it is you that has answered so little!

“Well did Isaiah prophesy of you hypocrites, as it is written, This people honoreth me with their lips, But their heart is far from me.” – Mark 7:6

For the most part I have to go alone with you, Appolos. Although this is not a salvation issue it dose show an unwillingness to learn obedience. For example

In Mat. 3:15 Jesus said," Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfill all righteousness." To suffer something is to allow something. Jesus allowed something, not to make Himself more righteous than he already was but the righteousness He was required its own fulfillment. That is why I have a problem with those who refuse baptism. The righteousness that we become demands it and we should be willing to allow baptism for the sake of obedience to the righteousness within. This should not be objectionable to the believer because even Jesus who is perfect righteousness had to learn obedience by the things he suffered. Baptism is part of learning to obey. If Jesus had to learn to obey, how much more should we. Not to acquire righteousness but to learn to obey righteousness. The same thing that Jesus did. Are we better than he that we have a different standard than that required by those who have gone before? I think not.

 

[Jerry Shugart]

Apollos,

You say:

Where are you hiding the “grace” of your “theology”? With all the answers you don’t have??

How can anyone discuss these things with you?

You speak about me hiding the grace of my theology while all the while you deny the grace of God.

Paul says that the reward comes to him who worketh not,but believeth,but you say that that is nonsense.You say that a man must do works in order to receive the free gift.

You have no common sense and you do not understand grace.

But I know your remarks are with “doctrine” – the hateful and mean-spirited “doctrine” of your dispy theology that the Bible knows nothing about.

You are like the Pharisses who would not believe the Lord Jesus because they were so proud of their works.In fact,even though He told them that those who "believe" His words already possess eternal life and will not come into judgment they would not believe Him and they crucified Him.

Here is what He said to those like you who deny the "grace" of God:

"Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it. And because I tell you the truth, ye believe me not"(Jn.8:44,45).

You deny the words of the Lord Jesus and you would accuse Him of being mean-spirited too!Here are His words that the Pharisees would not believe and the words that you will not believe:

"He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life"(Jn.5:24).

Jesus said that some alive at that time would see the kingdom come. When/where did you answer this question?

First you quote the Lord Jesus as saying that His kingdom is not of this world and you deny that it will ever be of this world.Then you say that the Apostles saw the kingdom come to earth at some point in time.As I said,you have no reasoning ability and you deny the Holy Scriptures.

 

[Apollos]

Same old - "Blah - blah - blah."

Same old - "Blah - blah - blah."

Jerry -

You answer and rspond to what you choose - the remainder is ignored, because you have NOTHING to offer.

In my last I asked you to show me just -2- items where you "answered" me - concerning Mark 9:1 and John 6:29, and I would apologize to you. What did I get? The typical Jerry "special" - NOTHING !!!

That is just what "dispensationalism" is - NOTHING ! It is a back-water, reverse engineered "theology" created in the early 1800's by Nelson and Darby, drug along into the 1900's by the like of Ryrie.

When anyone challenges the validity of it, they are met with condescension and eventually hate. Choruses of "rightly dividing the word" and lack of "understanding" pour forth from the dispys. Why? Because dispy-ism fails and flounders underneath the light of truth! Any casual examination of it shows it out to be what it is - wrong!

So Jerry, when YOU want to have a serious discussion and some serious examination of scripture in reagrds to your "theology" - let me know. I will be there to refute all of your nonsense - but I won't put up with any of it, that's for sure!

 

[Jerry Shugart]

Jerry -
In my last I asked you to show me just -2- items where you "answered" me - concerning Mark 9:1 and John 6:29, and I would apologize to you. What did I get? The typical Jerry "special" - NOTHING !!!

If you will notice on the "Kingdoms" thread I answered Mark 9:1.And I have already been over John 6:29.It is clear that the Lord Jesus is using the word "work" in a figurative sense.Here Paul makes a contrast between "works" from "faith":If "faith was a "work" then what he said would make no sense:

"But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness"(Ro.4:5).

Again:

"Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works"(Ro.4:6).

And again:

"Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith"(Ro.3:27).

According to you "works" are required for salvation despite the fact that Paul says that the reward comes to him who worketh not,but believeth.

When anyone challenges the validity of it, they are met with condescension and eventually hate. Choruses of "rightly dividing the word" and lack of "understanding" pour forth from the dispys. Why? Because dispy-ism fails and flounders underneath the light of truth! Any casual examination of it shows it out to be what it is - wrong!

Yes,and we can see what lengths anti-dispensationalists will go to deny the Scriptural facts which the dispensationalists point out.

For instance,let us examine your so-called interpretation of 1Cor.12"13:

"For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit"(1Cor.12:13).

Since you must have your carnal rite of water baptism for salvation you are forced to pervert the meaning of the this verse.You said:

1 Cor 12:13 tells us it is by the direction of the one Holy Spirit that the lost are (water) baptized into the one body (the church).

That is not what the verse says.It does not say that it is by the "direction" of the Holy Spirit that the lost are water baptized into the Body of Christ.You show your lack of respect for what the Scriptures actually say by just simply saying that the Holy Spirit baptizes no one into the Body but merely "directs" that the lost are baptized by water into the Body of Christ.If that was the case then why would Paul not say that?

And if this verse is just about the Spirit "directing" that the lost be water baptized then why in the world would Paul say that all those baptized into the Body of Christ by the Holy Spirit "have been made to drink into one Spirit"?

Your whole theology falls apart if you are not allowed to make "works" into a condition for salvation and if you cannot pervert Paul's words by saying that the Holy Spirit baptizes no one into the Body but instead just "directs" the lost to be baptized with water.

So Jerry, when YOU want to have a serious discussion and some serious examination of scripture in reagrds to your "theology" - let me know. I will be there to refute all of your nonsense - but I won't put up with any of it, that's for sure!

You have no understanding of Scripture and the only way that you can even attempt to refute what I said is by perverting the Scriptures.

In His grace,--Jerry

 

[Apollos]

Hey - the Figuratives don't add up - - -

Hey - the Figuratives don't add up - - -

Jerry -

If you will notice on the "Kingdoms" thread I answered Mark 9:1.

Finally!!! I have answered appropriately over there...

And I have already been over John 6:29.It is clear that the Lord Jesus is using the word "work" in a figurative sense.

First I asked just for the post #. Can you give me the number where you told me HOW the word "work of God" is used figuratively ??? This can not be done because it does not exist.

I will ask one last time: HOW is the word "work" used figuratively in John 6:29 ?????? What is the "figure" that "work" is used as??? You say it is "clear" so... C'mon - cough it up!

Your entire "works" argument now hinges on this explanation...

 

[Sold Out]

However,in the present dispensation we are to preach another gospel,and the heart and soul of the gospel we are to preach concerns the "purpose" of the death of the Lord Jesus upon the Cross.This gospel is referred to by Paul as the "word of reconciliation".The Christian has been given the "ministry of reconciliation" to preach the "word of reconciliation"(2Cor.5:18,19).

This gospel,unlike the gospel that was preach to the Jews,cannot be preached apart from the "purpose" of His death:

There is a difference between preaching that "Jesus is the Christ" and preaching that "while we were enemies we were reconciled by the death" of the Lord Jesus Christ.

They are both "good news",but they are not the same "good news".

In His grace,--Jerry
”Dispensationalism Made Easy”
http://midacts.net/studies/shugart-dispensationalism_made_easy.html

Galatians 1:6,7 - "I am astonished that you are so quickly deserting the one who called you by the grace of Christ and are turning to a different gospel— which is really no gospel at all. Evidently some people are throwing you into confusion and are trying to pervert the gospel of Christ".

Paul states THERE IS NO OTHER GOSPEL - period. The same gospel has been in effect since the fall of man. The only difference is that before Christ's incarnation, the Jews were entrusted with reaching the world. When Jesus came in bodily form, the mystery was revealed to the Gentiles, and became part of the program to reach the world for Christ.

Colossians 1:25-27, "I have become its servant by the commission God gave me to present to you the word of God in its fullness— the mystery that has been kept hidden for ages and generations, but is now disclosed to the saints. To them God has chosen to make known among the Gentiles the glorious riches of this mystery, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory."

Eph 3:6, "This mystery is that through the gospel the Gentiles are heirs together with Israel, members together of one body, and sharers together in the promise in Christ Jesus."

 

[elected4ever]

Galatians 1:6,7 - "I am astonished that you are so quickly deserting the one who called you by the grace of Christ and are turning to a different gospel— which is really no gospel at all. Evidently some people are throwing you into confusion and are trying to pervert the gospel of Christ". :BRAVO:

Paul states THERE IS NO OTHER GOSPEL - period. The same gospel has been in effect since the fall of man. The only difference is that before Christ's incarnation, the Jews were entrusted with reaching the world. When Jesus came in bodily form, the mystery was revealed to the Gentiles, and became part of the program to reach the world for Christ.

Colossians 1:25-27, "I have become its servant by the commission God gave me to present to you the word of God in its fullness— the mystery that has been kept hidden for ages and generations, but is now disclosed to the saints. To them God has chosen to make known among the Gentiles the glorious riches of this mystery, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory." :thumb:

Eph 3:6, "This mystery is that through the gospel the Gentiles are heirs together with Israel, members together of one body, and sharers together in the promise in Christ Jesus."

:e4e: :wave: :cheers:

 

[Jerry Shugart]

Galatians 1:6,7 - "I am astonished that you are so quickly deserting the one who called you by the grace of Christ and are turning to a different gospel— which is really no gospel at all. Evidently some people are throwing you into confusion and are trying to pervert the gospel of Christ".

Paul states THERE IS NO OTHER GOSPEL - period.

Oh really?

Where does he say such a thing?

If this is the best you can do then you might as well cease from posting.Paul says that no one else is supposed to preach any other gospel to them.

And since those who would preach the "gospel of the circumcision" had already agreed to limit their testimony to the Jews (Gal.2:2:9) then no one was going to preach the gospel of circumcision to them.

The same gospel has been in effect since the fall of man. The only difference is that before Christ's incarnation, the Jews were entrusted with reaching the world. When Jesus came in bodily form, the mystery was revealed to the Gentiles, and became part of the program to reach the world for Christ.

If the purpose of His death was preached throughout time then how do you explain that those closest to Him did not even know that He must die?

 

[Sold Out]

Oh really?

Where does he say such a thing?

If this is the best you can do then you might as well cease from posting.Paul says that no one else is supposed to preach any other gospel to them.

And since those who would preach the "gospel of the circumcision" had already agreed to limit their testimony to the Jews (Gal.2:2:9) then no one was going to preach the gospel of circumcision to them.

If the purpose of His death was preached throughout time then how do you explain that those closest to Him did not even know that He must die?

Hello....ever read the book of Isaiah?

and.....Abraham took his son Isaac (In Gen 22) to sacrifice him and according to Hebrews 11:19, he knew God would raise him from the dead. Isaac is a picture of Christ.

Every time a lamb was sacrificed, it was a proclamation of the Gospel. Something innocent had to die for the guilty. This is why John said in John 1:29, "The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him and said, "Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!"