Theology Club: Is MAD doctrine correct?

heir

TOL Subscriber
What are these corrupt books you are speaking of and what specifically makes them "corrupt? What is your evidence?
The Godhead, the blood, the faith OF Jesus Christ, the gospel OF CHRIST, the form of sound words from the risen Lord Jesus Christ to and through the apostle Paul to the church, the Body of Christ are all compromised in the versions.

This sounds like conspiratorial mythology.
The versions don't even all say the same thing. They certainly don't say the same thing as the King James Bible in many instances. And how about missing words...64,000 missing words in the NIV. They even wipe out entire verses! If you put them all together; that would be from about the middle of the book of Acts to the end of Revelation.
I want to know the word as it was written.
Then open the KJB with all readiness of mind believing the words on the page mean what they say, as they say it and to whom they say it.
 
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godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
"Semantical" is not a word. The word you were looking for is "semantic."

And if this is all you have in response to my question, then all you have is weakness, epitomized.

You couldn't even find another passage in which the word was used in the same manner as you claim Paul was using it in 1 Timothy 1:15.


There is not one single use of "Bride of Christ" in the entire Bible. This makes that a non-issue. It matters not that Paul compares the relationship between God and Christians with a marriage, or that anyone else does. I don't deny its use, so how about you try moving along?

And also try to explain why Paul is the only one to use "Body of Christ."


o you run away without ever having defended your position. Why am I not surprised?


I know. I was expounding on the question because his answer was vapid.

As you can see he was still unable to answer.

http://www.thefreedictionary.com/semantical
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Prove it, legion. Show one that says "prototype" is not the first in the pattern.

Check out BDAG, etc. Words have a range of meaning and there is a reason many translations use chief of sinners. Paul was NOT the first sinner, not the first Christian, etc. He was an e.g. of grace and the gospel, not the first one, not the only one.
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
The Godhead, the blood, the faith OF Jesus Christ, the gospel OF CHRIST, the form of sound words from the risen Lord Jesus Christ to and through the apostle Paul to the church, the Body of Christ are all compromised in the versions.

The versions don't even all say the same thing. They certainly don't say the same thing as the King James Bible in many instances. And how about missing words...64,000 missing words in the NIV. They even wipe out entire verses! If you put them all together; that would be from about the middle of the book of Acts to the end of Revelation.
Then open the KJB with all readiness of mind believing the words on the page mean what they say, as they say it and to whom they say it.

Again, ignorance of KJV adding words that do not belong, not understanding the genitive, etc.

You also make the crazy mistake of thinking the person and work of Christ are not germane to the one gospel, but evidence of two MAD gospels?! This is beyond belief and shows me you do not know what you are talking about.

The Deity, death, resurrection of Christ are core gospel truths denied by Muslims. MAD two true post-cross gospel theories are a modern Bullinger, Stam, etc. invention (hyper-disp) without precedent in 2000 years of church history and tantamount to a denial of the finished work of Christ as to one of your specious, false gospels.
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
Again, ignorance of KJV adding words that do not belong, not understanding the genitive, etc.
I have the pure words of the Lord, a Bible, all scripture. You have your scholars and their opinions. I can't help people who won't believe the Bible.

You also make the crazy mistake of thinking the person and work of Christ are not germane to the one gospel,
How is anyone to respond to your babbling and made up terms?
but evidence of two MAD gospels?!
Galatians 2:7 KJV

The Deity, death, resurrection of Christ are core gospel truths denied by Muslims.
Who was talking about Muslims? Your comments have nothing to do with this discussion.
MAD two true post-cross gospel theories are a modern Bullinger, Stam, etc. invention (hyper-disp) without precedent in 2000 years of church history
You can eat your "church history" (Colossians 2:8 KJV). You cannot make Galatians 2:7 KJV go away. You cannot make that which Peter and Paul preached that are clearly different, the same. It drives you crazy!
and tantamount to a denial of the finished work of Christ as to one of your specious, false gospels.
Those who rightly divide the word of truth uphold the faith OF and finished work of the Lord Jesus Christ.
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
The Deity, death, resurrection of Christ
The gospel of God

Romans 1:1 Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God,

Romans 1:2 (Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,)

Romans 1:3 Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;

Romans 1:4 And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead:

won't save anyone today.
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
Arggg...I don't feel the love.

Gal. 2:7 is a demarcation of ministry, not two gospel messages post-cross (one would have to be false). Paul did not teach MAD, but a few ignorant modern fringe preachers have. You will follow them, but not credible NT scholarship?! I cannot help you:rapture:
 

Lighthouse

The Dark Knight
Gold Subscriber
Hall of Fame
So they added a word that people use because they are too ignorant to know the words that are proper. What of it? It's like "orientate." The word is "orient." If you look at the link provided they even show that "semantic" means the exact same things a they have defined "semantical." That should tell you that the word you used is superfluous and doesn't belong in a dictionary, because it's not a real word.

I'd challenge you to find it in a Webster's or Oxford, but you've never answered any challenges to provide Scripture that backed up your arguments, so I don't expect you to answer this one.

Gal. 2:7 is a demarcation of ministry, not two gospel messages post-cross (one would have to be false)
Prove it. Exegete the passage...
sonictap01.gif
 

Nick M

Black Rifles Matter
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Words have a range of meaning and there is a reason many translations use chief of sinners.

1 Timothy 1

16 However, for this reason I obtained mercy, that in me first Jesus Christ might show all longsuffering, as a pattern to those who are going to believe on Him for everlasting life.


You once again completely misdirect. I said he claims to be the pattern, and you go back to things that do not exist.
 

godrulz

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
So they added a word that people use because they are too ignorant to know the words that are proper. What of it? It's like "orientate." The word is "orient." If you look at the link provided they even show that "semantic" means the exact same things a they have defined "semantical." That should tell you that the word you used is superfluous and doesn't belong in a dictionary, because it's not a real word.

I'd challenge you to find it in a Webster's or Oxford, but you've never answered any challenges to provide Scripture that backed up your arguments, so I don't expect you to answer this one.


Prove it. Exegete the passage...
sonictap01.gif

Don't use irregardless either....I gave you exegesis from A.T. Robertson and pointed you to Mounce and Wallace to explain the nuanced use of the genitive. If you would look at non-KJV versions and the context, you would see that demarcation of ministry is right, not two gospels. This is consistent with the entire Pauline corpus/NT theology, so I call you on proof texting a verse to make a big unbiblical doctrine. I have dealt with it in detail in the past and you have forgot. You rejected it then and will reject it now because you guys are anti-intellectual and would rather trust Enyart than someone who can actually translate the Bible with extant MSS and write thick Greek grammar books.

I cannot help willful, arrogant ignorance.
 

Nick M

Black Rifles Matter
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Words have a range of meaning and there is a reason many translations use chief of sinners.

1 Timothy 1

16 However, for this reason I obtained mercy, that in me first Jesus Christ might show all longsuffering, as a pattern to those who are going to believe on Him for everlasting life.


And he chose to ignore this because it means what it says in blue.
 

heir

TOL Subscriber
Gal. 2:7 is a demarcation of ministry, not two gospel messages post-cross (one would have to be false).

It doesn't take much to show that there are more than one very real gospels (not false) "post-cross".

Galatians 1:8 But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed.

Galatians 1:9 As we said before, so say I now again, if any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.

Peter preached the gospel of God, the gospel of the circumcision.

Paul preached the gospel of God, the gospel of the uncircumcision, the gospel of Christ, the gospel of the grace of God.

An angel from heaven in Revelation preached a gospel of judgment.

How many is that?

Paul did not teach MAD, but a few ignorant modern fringe preachers have.
1 Timothy 1:13-16 KJV, 1 Corinthians 9:17 KJV, Ephesians 3:1-6 KJV, Ephesians 3:8 KJV
You will follow them, but not credible NT scholarship?!
I follow Paul 1 Corinthians 4:15-16 KJV
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
"All scriptures are God breathed and profitable for...." Our translations are useful for this purpose in as far as they reflect the meaning of original scriptures that God breathed. In the days when men lost their lives or were persecuted for translating the Bible from Latin into the common language of the people their goal was not to make a new holy book but a one that was as close to the meaning of the original Holy Book as possible.

Will a glass that is 99% water and 1% poison kill you?
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Check out BDAG, etc. Words have a range of meaning and there is a reason many translations use chief of sinners. Paul was NOT the first sinner, not the first Christian, etc. He was an e.g. of grace and the gospel, not the first one, not the only one.

Who received "all longsuffering" before Paul?
 

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
1 Timothy 1

16 However, for this reason I obtained mercy, that in me first Jesus Christ might show all longsuffering, as a pattern to those who are going to believe on Him for everlasting life.


You once again completely misdirect. I said he claims to be the pattern, and you go back to things that do not exist.

Indeed, the pattern is the 1st, and it's never the 8000th of an item.
 
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