ECT If you are a Christian, what is the significance of this passage?

[Cross Reference]

"Submit yourselves therefore to God. Resist the devil, and he will flee from you". Draw nigh to God, and he will draw nigh to you. Cleanse your hands, ye sinners; and purify your hearts, ye double minded. Be afflicted, and mourn, and weep: let your laughter be turned to mourning, and your joy to heaviness. Humble yourselves in the sight of the Lord, and he shall lift you up." James 4:7-10 (KJV)

 

[Cross Reference]

Question: If you believe God gives a new heart to one after he is saved or even before, as some believe, and what God gives is perfect, then why should anyone believe "His gifted perfect heart" would ever have a need to be purified or in this case, "re-purified"? __ Perhaps this is where the "salvation by works" issue was birthed. Certainly it must go against the grain of those who believe God's grace is irresistible?

Excuses for this not being accurate is probably why the book of James is heavily argued against as being compatible with the rest of scripture.

 

[1Way1Truth1Life]

James is very compatible with the whole of Scripture. Even Paul said to work out our salvation with fear and trembling, to make our calling and election sure. The working it out though is not what saves us. It is the fruit of salvation. It is walking in obedience to God. It is the evidence of salvation not seen and as yet as looking through a glass darkly. A changed life. A changed heart. Without fruit, without obedience we are not of God. It would be dead faith. Powerless and without effect.

God opposes the proud but gives grace to the humble. If we say we have no sin we lie and the truth is not in us. Shall we be like the sinner that beat his breast, not even looking up realizing he is a sinner and not worthy and ask for forgiveness? Or shall we be the haughty, arrogant and prideful religious person that thanked God he was not like that sinner?

So often those who scream salvation by works do not want to give up their sins and live for God. They want their cake and eat it too. They want to live for Satan and live for God. But we cannot serve both. Friendship with the world is enmity against God.

When we grieve, mourn and wail, we are weak. And when we are weak then God is strong. Godly sorrow bring repentance that leads to salvation. Worldly sorrow does not lead to salvation. If we start to think we are all perfect because we believe in Jesus and need nothing such as repentance or look down on others because their lives are in sin - that is pride and haughtiness. Pride comes before the fall and a haughty spirit before destruction.

 

[Ask Mr. Religion]

Excuses for this not being accurate is probably why the book of James is heavily argued against as being compatible with the rest of scripture.

The "heavy arguing" against James continues from but a few who will not accept that the church has spoken in receiving James and all the other 65 books of the Scripture.

http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showthread.php?p=2832448#post2832448

As to the frequent raising up of Luther's comments in a preface, see:

http://www.aomin.org/aoblog/index.php/2007/04/03/six-points-on-luthers-epistle-of-straw/

http://beggarsallreformation.blogspot.com/2008/06/luthers-epistle-of-straw-comment.html

AMR

 

[nikolai_42]

Question: If you believe God gives a new heart to one after he is saved or even before, as some believe, and what God gives is perfect, then why should anyone believe "His gifted perfect heart" would ever have a need to be purified or in this case, "re-purified"? __ Perhaps this is where the "salvation by works" issue was birthed. Certainly it must go against the grain of those who believe God's grace is irresistible?

Excuses for this not being accurate is probably why the book of James is heavily argued against as being compatible with the rest of scripture.

Every time I read James (or even part of it) I am more and more convinced that it is not the anti-Paul book some try to make of it. The first verse makes it clear that it is not simply sent to churches but to all those related to him after the flesh. So I don't see being able to make of it all commandments to believers. So in chapter 2 where he is seen as contradicting Paul, what he says about transgressing the whole law if being guilty in one point - that's right in line with Paul's claim about being saved without the law.

James tells us that the man who doesn't have a tamed tongue has a vain religion, yet he also tells us that "The tongue no man can tame...". Which means he isn't advocating any works righteousness. So how can one believe that that is what he is saying in James 4? In fact, he makes the clear claim that the wisdom that is from above has certain fruits (James 3:17). In other words, this is of God - not of man. Thus his statements should often be taken as the "let us" injunctions (can't recall the term for those "commands", so called).

Specifically, then, the passage you cited is only possible to fulfill to one who has been given the faith to so do. Isn't that right in line with "...I'll show you my faith BY my works..."?

 

[WonderfulLordJesus]

Significance of the passage? Like many Bible passages, it seems perfectly clear. For those of you who find it mysterious, want some good advice? Skip the senseless debate and get saved.

1 Corinthians 2:14 But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.

 

[Cross Reference]

The "heavy arguing" against James continues from but a few who will not accept that the church has spoken in receiving James and all the other 65 books of the Scripture.

http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showthread.php?p=2832448#post2832448

As to the frequent raising up of Luther's comments in a preface, see:

http://www.aomin.org/aoblog/index.php/2007/04/03/six-points-on-luthers-epistle-of-straw/

http://beggarsallreformation.blogspot.com/2008/06/luthers-epistle-of-straw-comment.html

AMR

I expect you to always to pick out the least of the points to comment on. I need not ask to know why.

 

[Cross Reference]

Significance of the passage? Like many Bible passages, it seems perfectly clear. For those of you who find it mysterious, want some good advice? Skip the senseless debate and get saved.

1 Corinthians 2:14 But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.

For my part, I wish no debate. FWIW, there hasn't been offered up anything worth debating.