I believe what Jesus said in this manner: Them is a plural pronoun. As in you are sons of God and then added you ALL are children of the most high. This would be ALL those sentient beings whom God created ... angels and men and women of the family of Adam. Jesus was speaking of ALL THOSE mentioned in Ps. 82.
No.
Ps 82 is talking about those being judged and those same who are about to be sentenced. AND, Jesus was referring to ALL OF THOSE mentioned in Ps. 82, which is Satan and his angelic followers who rebelled with him and mankind, who is present at the trial as well.
You need to read Ps. 82 after this fashion: It is a scene in a play with characters and dialogue. Scene is a court room. God is in the judgement seat. There is one before HIM pleading his case which included two aspects: a.) to accuse God of being an unfair judge. b.) and to accuse mankind of his pitiful existence and of guilt. God listens and then speaks. Wow does he speak! You before me will die just like men!
Men had already received their judgement of death ... but they didn't die right away. I don't think the accuser understood God's method. Men would live the rest of their lives partaking of the dust of the ground and then face death. This accuser surely was thinking they had gotten away with their crime and that God was being unfair.
Well, the message changes at this point. God Almighty Father speaks a word to someone else: Arise oh God, judge and inherit the nations.
Questions: Who is the only God you know who arose? Who is it that will be the judge of mankind? Who is to inherit all the nations for all things were made by him and for him? It is written in God's law of Ps. 82 of the judgement of angels and men and of the ONE who was to come.
John 10:35-38: If HE (God the Father as judge in Ps 82) called them gods unto whom the Word of God came, and scripture cannot be broken; Say ye of Him (the Messiah whom he sent), whom the Father hath sanctified (as mentioned in the OT law within Ps. 82), and sent (Him) into the world, 'Thou blasphemest; because I (Jesus Emmanuel have) said, I am The Son of God? If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not. But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works (that I demonstrate): that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him. (I as The WORD, am the one - who is God and who is with God ... who is the God who has come to arise... as stated in the Law of Ps. 82.
Explain how you see Jesus proves me wrong about John 10: 34-35 referring to Ps. 82 please. A list perhaps. Maybe I'll see what you see.
Show me even just some of the other scripture you have in mind to refute my thoughts so I can evaluate what they are saying as well.
I think I already did what you are asking for. In John 10 Jesus speaking to the the leader of the Jews, chastising them for how they led the people. You can see this in the earlier part of the chapter where Jesus talks about thieves and hirelings and those that don't care for the sheep. This relates directly back to Ps 82, because it also chastises leaders of the people for not leading in a righteous way ("[don't] judge unjustly", "[don't] accept the persons of the wicked", "do justice").
[Psa 82:2 KJV] How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.
[Psa 82:3 KJV] Defend the poor and fatherless: do justice to the afflicted and needy.
[Psa 82:4 KJV] Deliver the poor and needy: rid [them] out of the hand of the wicked.
In the latter part of the chapter (admittedly some time passes between the two parts) The Jews ask Jesus to tell them clearly if He's the Christ, and when He answers, He also says that He is one with the Father, which the Jews take to be blasphemy, since He equates Himself with the Father ([Jhn 10:33 KJV] The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.). In answer, Jesus uses Ps 82 to show that it should not be that big of a deal for Him to call Himself God, since God called the leaders of the people gods in Ps 82.
[Jhn 10:34 KJV] Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
[Jhn 10:35 KJV] If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken
Note that vs 34 is a direct quote from Ps 82:6, and vs 35 is Jesus' interpretation of it:
1. that God called some group "gods"
2. that group was the one to "whom the word of God came", making it the children of Israel
3. It was the ancestors of the people Jesus was addressing who received the "word of God", since in vs 34 He said "written in YOUR law"
4. They were responsible for knowing and understanding the law ("the word of God")
Now if Jesus applied "I said, Ye are gods" to the ancestors of the ones he was speaking to, and they were sons (descendants) of those ancestors, then Jesus being the Son of God (He called God "Father" and said that the Father and He were one) should not be that big of a stretch for them--they, too, were sons of sons of God, since they were descendants of sons of God, whom God called "gods".
So it was a slap in the face of those who were about to stone Jesus, but it also tells us what was being described in Ps 82, that it wasn't some council of angels and such that was being addressed when God said "I said, Ye are gods."
Of course, when God refers back to what He previously said ("I said" in vs Ps 82:6), we should look for the place where He is quoting from, if we can find it. Fortunately, it isn't far away. In Ps 82:1, God calls those that He is addressing "gods", while He is standing in the congregation of the "mighty" (or of "God"). Here's what Strongs says about the word translated "congregation":
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עֵדָה ʻêdâh, ay-daw'; feminine of
H5707 in the original sense of fixture; a stated assemblage (specifically, a concourse, or generally, a family or crowd):—assembly, company, congregation, multitude, people, swarm.
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All of those possible meanings would fit with the Ps 82 usage, but one of them stands out to me--"family"
Go back to [Psa 82:6 KJV] I have said, Ye [are] gods; and all of you [are] children of the most High.
There are two parts of what God refers back to what He said before: "I said..." 1 "ye are gods" and 2 "all of you [are] children of the most High". Where did God say that second part? Look back at vs 1:
[Psa 82:1 KJV] [[A Psalm of Asaph.]] God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods.
He is described as standing in the "congregation of God ("El", or the mighty in KJV)". If we use the word "family" for "congregation", we have the two parts that God (loosely) quoted Himself: 1. that they are gods and 2. that they are in the family of God, which makes them children of the most High ("El Yon" in vs 6).
Which makes sense with what Jesus said in John 10, quoting Ps 82, but makes no sense at all if you try to turn it into some assembly of angels.