Today's POD goes to Strpe for his masterful answer to this silly question.
:first: Post of the day!
Delmar's POD 8-10-14
- Thread starter Delmar
- Start date
:ha:
shagster01
New member
Then I guess gay lust isn't a sin?? Because that is the answer I got here.
shagster01
New member
Or is it that a gay couple has no biblical reason to be denied marriage if they are platonic?
Posted from the TOL App!
Posted from the TOL App!
:doh:
The point is that if they are not engaging in homosexual conduct they're not homosexual. 1 Corinthians 6:9-11, emphasis on v11.
shagster01
New member
Even if they are physically attracted to other men?
shag
I think understand your question.
Jesus defined those men who lust after a woman in his heart as an "adulterer". So why would it not also be true of a man who lusts after another man in his heart be a homosexual. Correct?
Why do you think Jesus referred to those men who lust after women as adulterers?
I think within the Hebew culture it was considered a given that men lusting after men is wicked. Why bother bringing up what everybody knows?
make sense.
I have no idea what you are saying.
A man married a woman. Once married he had a moral obligation to cleave to his wife only. Sin begins in the mind. Therefore Christ warned the married man against allowing thoughts of other women to have free rein his mind.
Sorry, but that is not why Jesus said that.
He said that because it is a sin to lust after a woman. In fact, it is committing adultery to do so.
"But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart." Matt 5:28
Great post! Who are you again...:idunno:
Agreed. He didn't just address himself to married men.
Technically He did. Those to whom He was directly speaking were all married.