Battle Talk ~ Battle Royale VII

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Turbo

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Originally posted by Aussie Thinker
Actually it is you theists who constantly interpret scripture. You have to or it wouldn’t make sense.
What's wrong with interpretation? It's impossible to comprehend anything one reads or hears without interpreting.

I love that when scripture doesn’t make sense.. you interpret.. otherwise it is all literate. It must be wonderful to have it both ways.. is it the unadulterated word of God or not ?
It makes sense to me. Why would God be forbidden from using figures of speech and symbolic illlustrations?
It says Eve was the Mother of all living….

Including flies.. or is it just humans.. if so wasn’t Adam living then too.. The Bible is so full of ambiguity like this you have to wonder if God inspired it was he a moron or just deliberately misleading ?
If you honestly think God was saying that Eve is the mother of flies, it's not God who's the moron.
Fortunately there are plenty of sensible Christians who treat the Adam and Eve story as a myth used by primitive people to understand the start of humankind.
And Christ was not one of them, so He must either be a liar or a fool according to you.
 

cthoma11

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Originally posted by ZroKewl
Life was created. By natural causes. Not supernatural. Humans are natural. If they can create life, then life can be created by natural processes. It doesn't require God, in other words.

--ZK
Actually this entire response is begging the question. Your conclusion doesn't necessarily follow from your premise and in fact your premises assume the conlcusion.

(edited to fix run on sentence... my specialty)
 

Scrimshaw

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Originally posted by cthoma11
Thanks for the link. 2 points stand out immediately though
1) From the article:
"The scientists constructed the virus using its genome sequence".
So this was not a random process (which is the evolutionary position isn't it) rather it is a deliberate and controlled creation action predicated by huge amounts of knowledge. Aren't you in fact arguing the position that life was not created?

2) Virus' to my understanding are not the same as 'life', and hence your claim that life has been created is still unsubstantiated in my mostly uniformed opinion (I majored in physics, not biology :) ).

Good call cthoma11. And I would also add:

3) This "constructed" virus made from it's "genome sequence" - can't reproduce. Reproduction is one of the most essential attributes of life. Thus, comparing this synthetic concoction to biological life is beyond moronic.

It seems Aussie-stinker has stunk up this thread with more materialistic wishful-thinking.
 
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Scrimshaw

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Originally posted by ZroKewl
Pointing out the hypocrisy of the supposed followers of Jesus is my speciality. ;)

--ZK

Of course, because just like most atheists, you are probably just a jaded ex-Christian that now has some sick obsession with harrassing Christians with your superstitous beliefs in naturalistic, pixie-like super-processes. (None of which have been proven to exist; which therefore leaves you with nothing but the old "atheism of the gaps" fallacy as the only premise for your ignorant attacks on the Christian faith.)
 

Aussie Thinker

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You asked for proof of life produced in a Lab .. I gave it.

As life probably went through many iterations and a range of self replicating molecules before a successful version evolved into us it would be pretty hard to reproduce.

The intermediate steps only exist to day as “proto life”

Things like proteins, amino acids, viruses and eventually bacteria from primitive self replication through RNA world to DNA world would be as difficult to produce in a Lab as evolution.

HOWEVER.. they did succeed in making a virus from a chemical mixture.

It all goes to show possibility.
 

Aussie Thinker

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Scrimshaw writes,

Of course, because just like most atheists, you are probably just a jaded ex-Christian that now has some sick obsession with harrassing Christians with your superstitous beliefs in naturalistic, pixie-like super-processes. (None of which have been proven to exist; which therefore leaves you with nothing but the old "atheism of the gaps" fallacy as the only premise for your ignorant attacks on the Christian faith.)

Theist LOVE to give atheist own arguments back to them. It only verifies how good the original argument was and how much of an impression it made on the theist.

We don’t fill gaps with “atheism” we fill them with science. If science cannot fill a gap at present it is left as a gap.

Here is the fundamental difference between us.

We see that EVERYTHING EVER known has had a natural explanation.

We conclude that everything unknown will also have a natural explanation.

We NEVER see anything supernatural occur

We conclude that the supernatural does not exist.
 

Scrimshaw

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I am surprised that Zakath continues to dodge all the substantive questions asked by Bob. It's almost as if he doesn't even read the information that Bob is providing. How else could he continue to spew such repetitious ignorance such as this....

Originally posted by Zakath
In his last post, my opponent continues his Creationist "march to the sea" steamrolling along with his God of the Gaps argument. In this view, since science cannot yet answer every question in the universe, many of the unanswered questions must be relegated to the "evidence for the supernatural" category as Pastor Enyart cannot conceive of any other reasonable explanation than "God did it."

Is Zakath really a broken record with atheist recordings on it? He continues to make this "god of the gaps" argument without addressing Bob's rebuttal, specifically the argument of "filled gaps" versus "closed gaps". One of the most interesting questions Bob has asked Zakath was whether or not Zakath believed that science has the ability to CLOSE a gap. In other words, does science have the ability to RULE OUT a certain thing as a possible gap filler. Is it possible for science to find enough evidence to DISCONFIRM a mindless natural process as a sufficient cause of the universe and biological life? Of course, Zakath has ignored that question and continues to regurgitate the same "god of the gaps" argument, ad nauseum ad infinitum, without ever addressing the rebuttals that Bob has supplied in response to that accusation.

Zakath, I've got a newsflash for ya. Your "god of the gaps" argument was dismantled weeks ago. It is BECAUSE of our scientific knowledge that we rule out "natural processes" as possible gap fillers for the origin of life and the universe. And the fact that you have already admitted ignorance regarding the cause of the universe and life proves that your position of "God didn't do it" is held based on ignorance. Yes, that's right. Your atheistic "god didn't do it" position is nothing but an "atheism of the gaps" fallacy. You hypocritically accuse Bob of committing the very same fallacy that you are committing yourself. As a psychologist, you should know that such a behavior is called "projection". So please quit projecting your own logical fallacies on to Bob. Thanks.

The problem with this view of the universe is that it is too

This statement falsely assumes that "simplicity" automatically equals "fallacy". I'd love to see Zakath prove that one.

Lastly, I was really hoping that Zakath was NOT going to dredge up the old "IPU" crapola. Zakath, your IPU can be disproved by showing that it's a logically impossible being based on its own definitions -

IPU stands for - Invisible Pink Unicorn.

Lets take this definition apart and show how Zakath's alleged "alternative to God" is a logical impossiblity.

- Invisible: Means that the thing has no physical appearance, and therefore is not made up of matter, since all matter is visible.

- Pink: Oops, pink is a color derived from the light spectrum. Only visible things can have color. Thus, it is impossible for something to be both "pink" AND "invisible". Something must be visible in order to have light reflect off of it and cause it to have a pink coloration.

Unicorn: This one is a tricky definition. A unicorn can be defined as a mythic animal (horse with a horn), or merely any animal that has a singular horn. (A rhino might be considered a "unicorn") All animals are physical, visible things. By calling this thing a "unicorn", Zakath is calling it an animal. Since this unicorn is a physical animal, it is impossible for it to be "invisible" because all physical animals are VISIBLE.

Thus, we can dismiss Zakath's "IPU" as being an impossible "alternative" explanation since this IPU is a contradiction in terms; and therefore, logically impossible. To compare an IPU with the concept of God reveals the untold depths of fatuity that atheists will go to in order to evade, mangle, twist, distort, and obfuscate the issues that are relevant to the debate.
 
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Aussie Thinker

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Scrimshaw,

Are you the only one left who hasn’t seen Bob’s utter failure to present any sort of coherent argument.

Is Zakath really a broken record with atheist recordings on it? He continues to make this "god of the gaps" argument without addressing Bob's rebuttal, specially the argument of "filled gaps" versus "closed gaps". One of the most interesting questions Bob has asked Zakath was whether or not Zakath believed that science has the ability to CLOSE a gap. In other words, does science have the ability to RULE OUT a certain thing as a possible gap filler. Is it possible for science to find enough evidence to DISCONFIRM a mindless natural process as a possible cause of the universe and biological life? Of course, Zakath has ignored that question and continues to regurgitate the same "god of the gaps" argument ad nauseum ad infinitum, without ever addressing the rebuttals that Bob has supplied in response to that accusation.

Bob never rebutted the “God of the Gaps” but made a ridiculous statement along the lines that science will NEVER fill some gaps. He reminded me of a primitive caveman saying we will never understand lighting ! Zakath has stated as much and said yes science will fill gaps.. that is answer enough !

Zakath, I got a newsflash for ya. Your "god of the gaps" argument was dismantled weeks ago. It is BECAUSE of our scientific knowledge that we rule out "natural processes" as possible gap filler for the origin of life and the universe.

What the hell are you smoking ? Science has ruled out natural origins for life…LOL. Science can ONLY show natural origins for everything. Therefore science would stipulate that life HAD to have a natural origin

And the fact that you have already admitted ignorance regarding the cause of the universe and life proves that your position of "God didn't do it" is held based on ignorance.

Did you re-read this before posting ? You have just stated a God of the gaps argument is fallacious and then go on to say we have a gap in our knowledge so “GOD DID IT”.. ohh the irony ..

Yes, that's right. Your atheistic, "god didn't do it" position is nothing but an "atheism of the gaps" fallacy. You hypocritically accuse Bob committing the very fallacy that you are committing yourself. As a psychologist, you should know that such a behavior is called "projection". So please quit projecting your own logical fallacies on to Bob. Thanks.

No we say we don’t know what did it. We are confident it wasn’t something supernatural as nothing supernatural EVER happens.

Lastly, I was really hoping that Zakath was going to dredge up the old "IPU" crapola. Zakath, your IPU can disproved by showing that it is logically impossible based on its own definition -

IPI stands for Invisble Pink Unicorn.

Lets take this definition apart and show how Zakath's alleged "alternative to God" is a logical impossiblity.

- Invisible: Means that the thing has no physical appearance, and therefore is not made up of matter, since all matter is visible.

- Pink: Oops, pink is a color derived from the light spectrum. Only visible, physical things can have color. Thus, it is impossbile for something to be both "pink" AND "invisible". Something must be visible in order to have light reflect off of it and cause it to have a pink coloration.

Unicorn: This one is a tricky definition. A unicorn can be defined as a mythic animal (horse with a horn), or merely any animal that has a singular horn. (A rhino might be considered a "unicorn") All animals are physical, visible things. If this unicorn is a physical animal, it is impossible for it to be "invisible" because all physical animals are VISIBLE.

Thus, we can dismiss Zakath's "IPU" as being a possible "alternative" explanation since his IPU is a contradiction in terms, and therefore, logically impossible. Therefore, to compare an IPU with the concept of God reveals the untold depths of fatuity that atheists will go to in order to evade, mangle, twist, distort, and obfuscate the issues that are relevant to the debate.

Fantastic… you now apply the same reasoning to your God.. see .. he doesn’t exist either… well done you are on your way to be a free thinking human.
 

Scrimshaw

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Originally posted by Aussie Thinker
You asked for proof of life produced in a Lab .. I gave it.

You must have one twisted idea of what "proof" is. All you did was provide a link to some news website that made a bunch of generic claims. The article on that link provided no scientific proof, data, equations, formulas, procedures, or scholastic documentation that proved that they actually created "life", or how it was done. All that article did was provide a general report about how scientists may have synthetically RE-created a virus that can't even reproduce. All living things reproduce. To call something "life" that can't even reproduce, is asinine.

As life probably went through many iterations and a range of self replicating molecules before a successful version evolved into us it would be pretty hard to reproduce.

Probably? And what do you base this "probability" estimate on? Have you personally observed natural processes that are known to cause self-replicating molecules to mindlessly form themselves into living organisms?

Do you have any idea how big of a breach there is between a molecule and the simplest living organism?


It all goes to show possibility.

LOL! Even if they did create "life" (which they did NOT), the only "possibility" it would prove is that life requires intelligent designers in order to be created!! Your pathetic excuse of an atheistic argument has inadvertently supported theism. :doh:
 
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Scrimshaw

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Originally posted by Aussie Thinker
Theist LOVE to give atheist own arguments back to them. It only verifies how good the original argument was and how much of an impression it made on the theist.

No, it simply is done to prove that atheists are epistemological hypocrites, which is exactly what they are.

We don’t fill gaps with “atheism” we fill them with science. If science cannot fill a gap at present it is left as a gap.

No gaps relating to the origin of all things have been filled. None of them. The only gaps that have been filled by science are gaps that relate to the current operation of physics, and testable, repeatable phenomena. However, none of the origin events are repeatable, or testable; so they are not even a "scientific" enterprise in the first place.

Here is the fundamental difference between us.

We see that EVERYTHING EVER known has had a natural explanation. We conclude that everything unknown will also have a natural explanation.

You don't "conclude" that everything unknown will also have a natural explanation, YOU ASSUME. And of course, that assumption is based on a faith-belief in the philosophy of materialism. And as I pointed out above, ALL of the origin questions remain unanswered from a naturalistic point of view.

Indeed, the difference between us is this - from everything known, we have never seen a natural processes that was even remotely capable of directly creating anything even remotedly complex. We have never seen a natural process that could conceivably accomplish the creative feats necessary to bring this kind of universe into existence and mindlessly produce complex lifeforms out of non-living matter. Thus, we logically deduce that no such natural processes actually exist.

If no such natural processes could possibly exist, that leaves two options -

1) We had no cause, but everything popped into existence out of nothing, as is.

Or.....

2) There is an intelligent Creator who created all things through supernatural means.


Of those two options, 2 is more logical. Thus, over 95% of mankind is/has been - THEIST.
 
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Scrimshaw

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Originally posted by Aussie Thinker
Scrimshaw,

Are you the only one left who hasn’t seen Bob’s utter failure to present any sort of coherent argument.

Far from it. Go look at the polls and tell me who most people think is winning the debate.

Bob never rebutted the “God of the Gaps” but made a ridiculous statement along the lines that science will NEVER fill some gaps.

I suggest you go back and reread the post where Bob spent many paragraphs detailing the difference between a "closed" gap and a "filled gap". Specifically, the part where Bob described how part of scientific discovery is learning about nature's LIMITATIONS, not just it's capabilities. Yes, science has discovered and confirmed that nature (and natural processes) have limitations. Our increase in scientific knowledge has been revealing the limitations of nature just as much as they have been revealing it's possibilities. You materislists love to fantasize about the unlimited possibilities of nature just like a 3-year old loves to fantasize about the unlimited possibilities of Mighty Mouse.

Bob presented Zakath with the fact that a "closed gap" would be a gap that was not filled, but ELIMINATED based on a permanent disassociation. You can't "fill" a gap that no longer exists. If our knowledge has confirmed that there is no possible natural process that could even *theoretically* cause the mindless origin of life and the universe, then there is no gap to fill. The gap would have been eliminated by science. You can't "fill" a gap that science has already eliminated.

He reminded me of a primitive caveman saying we will never understand lighting ! Zakath has stated as much and said yes science will fill gaps.. that is answer enough !

No, it is not an answer at all. Zakath completedly ignored Bob's arguments regarding closed gaps, and dodged his questions. Do you think dodging questions is an "effective" debate tactic? Zakath seems to think so.

What the hell are you smoking?

Your atheistic arguments. They are getting smoked like a joint. :D

Science has ruled out natural origins for life…LOL. Science can ONLY show natural origins for everything. Therefore science would stipulate that life HAD to have a natural origin

What are you saying? Are you saying that science cannot affirm limitations of natural processes, and thereby eliminate a natural process as a possible explanation for a phenomenon?

Did you re-read this before posting ? You have just stated a God of the gaps argument is fallacious and then go on to say we have a gap in our knowledge so “GOD DID IT”.. ohh the irony ..

Wrong. I would be in the same camp as Bob. I believe that there is no gap that God is "filling". This "gap" you speak of has been closed by science. God can't fill a gap that no longer exists.

No we say we don’t know what did it. We are confident it wasn’t something supernatural as nothing supernatural EVER happens.

Well, that is quite meaningless considering the fact that nothing we have ever seen has been even remotely comparable to the origin of the universe or origin of complex lifeforms!

Fantastic… you now apply the same reasoning to your God.. see .. he doesn’t exist either… well done you are on your way to be a free thinking human.

Wrong, there are many fine arguments that buttress the logical probability of theism. One of them is this:

1) All or nearly all physical events have a cause that is separate and distinct from the physical event (the effect).

2) The universe represents all physical things, and it's origin was a physical event.

3) Therefore, the universe most likely had a cause that was *separate and distinct* from the universe (the effect).


If the universe is "all physical things", the only thing that could be separate and distinct from the universe is a supernatural thing. A physical thing could not have been the cause of the universe because no physical thing would have existed yet to be the cause of - itself. (since the "universe" is all physical things)

The only thing that could be considered a "separate and distinct" cause of the universe (i.e., "all physical things") - would be a supernatural cause.
 
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Spartin

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Originally posted by One Eyed Jack
That's because I didn't give you a chance. Call it a pre-emptive strike, if you will. I know a setup when I see one.

..... not worth it.


Spartin
 
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heusdens

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Originally posted by Scrimshaw
Wrong, there are many fine arguments that buttress the logical probability of theism. One of them is this:

1) All or nearly all physical events have a cause that is separate and distinct from the physical event. (the effect)

2) The universe represents all physical things, and it's origin was a physical event.

3) Therefore, the universe most likely had a cause that was *separate and distinct* from the universe.


If the universe is "all physical things", the only thing that could be separate and distinct from the universe is a supernatural thing. A physical thing could not have been the cause of the universe because no physical thing would have existed yet to be the cause of - itself. (since the "universe" is all physical things)

The only thing that could be considered a "separate and distinct" cause of the universe (i.e., "all physical things") - would be a supernatural cause.

Theists have absolutely a talent for misrepresenting reality, and for using pseudo-logic.

Let us investigate the argument.

So the argument is:

1. All things have a cause
2. The universe represents all things
3. The universe must therefore have a cause

Let us investigate this logic in another example.

1. All members of a football team have parents
2. The football team represents all members of the team
3. Therefore the football team must have a parent

As we can see, argument 3 does not follow from argument 1 and 2. The logic is therefore flawed.

And another

1. In a closed thermodynamic system the amount of entropy continually increases
2. The universe represents all closed thermodynamic systems
3. Therefore in the universe the amounf of entropy must continually increase

This argument states that the universe therefore would have encountered already a heat death, unless it began at some time.
But the universe can be no less a closed thermodynamic system in regard of the second law, then it would be in regard of the first law, which means that the amount of energy and matter are constant through all time. In fact that could only lead to the conclusion that the heat death already occured. All useuable amounts of energy would have already been used.

This is however not the case. I look outside and.... the sun still shines! The error in the argument is of course that the universe is not a closed system.

Let us use another example.

1. A finite line has a begin and an end
2. An infinite line consists of finite lines
3. Therefore an infinite line has a begin and an end.

As we can see, this line of argument is simply false, since an infinite line does not have a begin or an end.

The argument for "first casue" is particulary flawed, since it misrepresents causality. Causality states that all events are as well a cause and an effect in different causal relationships. For example: cause1: it rains, effect1: I get wet. cause2. I get wet, effect2: I get sick.
The "first cause" is therefore also a "first effect" which by definition can only exist if there is also a cause for that, ad infinitium.

Moreover, outside of causality causes and effects do not exist. A "cause" for causality is therefore nonsensical.
 

heusdens

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Originally posted by Scrimshaw
Indeed, the difference between us is this - from everything known, we have never seen a natural processes that was even remotely capable of directly creating anything even remotedly complex. We have never seen a natural process that could conceivably accomplish the creative feats necessary to bring this kind of universe into existence and mindlessly produce complex lifeforms out of non-living matter. Thus, we logically deduce that no such natural processes actually exist.

If no such natural processes could possibly exist, that leaves two options -

1) We had no cause, but everything popped into existence out of nothing, as is.

Or.....

2) There is an intelligent Creator who created all things through supernatural means.


Of those two options, 2 is more logical. Thus, over 95% of mankind is/has been - THEIST.

Both are impossible, since a mere nothing does not provide any ground, any cause and any reason for there being a universe.
And the "intelligent creator working with supernatural means" is an absurd statement, we can not even consider, and by the way, it is in all respects indistinguishable from the first explenation.

Which only leaves the option that a pre-existing material universe caused the current observable universe. In this field already scientific explenations, theories and models occured, with varying degrees of success.

Was cosmic infation the 'Bang' of the Big Bang?
 

Aussie Thinker

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Scrimshaw,

Huesden covered most of it but I had to address this bit.

What are you saying? Are you saying that science cannot affirm limitations of natural processes, and thereby eliminate a natural process as a possible explanation for a phenomenon?

Science can NEVER state a gap cannot be filled. That si a ludicrouse statement.

Surely you want to rethink that one.. although to believe in a God you must seriously think at some stage scientists will say .. "well we have decided that we can NEVER answer that question"

Dont you see to say that they would have to HAVE an answer ?
 

tenkeeper

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cw,

i cannot limit my Creator
it's about my Faith in Him
all things are possible &
nothing is impossible for Him
i daily embrace Him and His omnipotence
 

RogerB

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Let us investigate this logic in another example.

1. All members of a football team have parents
2. The football team represents all members of the team
3. Therefore the football team must have a parent

As we can see, argument 3 does not follow from argument 1 and 2. The logic is therefore flawed.

There is NO flaw in that logic....other than a confusing mix of singulars and plurals.
 

bmyers

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Originally posted by Scrimshaw
Far from it. Go look at the polls and tell me who most people think is winning the debate.

This is a forum in which matters of theology are discussed. Looking around, one gets the impression that the majority of people participating are believers, and apparently the majority of those are of the Christian faith. It is not surprising that a "poll" (which this isn't - it's a straight vote) of such a group would show the theistic side as "winning", whether or not that side was actually winning the debate solely on the strength of the arguments.



I suggest you go back and reread the post where Bob spent many paragraphs detailing the difference between a "closed" gap and a "filled gap". Specifically, the part where Bob described how part of scientific discovery is learning about nature's LIMITATIONS, not just it's capabilities. Yes, science has discovered and confirmed that nature (and natural processes) have limitations. Our increase in scientific knowledge has been revealing the limitations of nature just as much as they have been revealing it's possibilities. You materislists love to fantasize about the unlimited possibilities of nature just like a 3-year old loves to fantasize about the unlimited possibilities of Mighty Mouse.

I think you'll be very hard pressed to find any example of someone "fantasizing" about "unlimited" possibilities. Some possibilities have been wrongly characterized as requiring nearly unlimited processes, due to some utterly incorrect calculations (made either through ignorance or intent to deceive) of probabilities.


Bob presented Zakath with the fact that a "closed gap" would be a gap that was not filled, but ELIMINATED based on a permanent disassociation. You can't "fill" a gap that no longer exists. If our knowledge has confirmed that there is no possible natural process that could even *theoretically* cause the mindless origin of life and the universe, then there is no gap to fill. The gap would have been eliminated by science. You can't "fill" a gap that science has already eliminated.

Correct. Unfortunately for his argument, Bob Enyart has failed to present an valid example of such a "closed gap". ALL examples he has presented to date are "closed" only in his own erroneous analyses.



1) All or nearly all physical events have a cause that is separate and distinct from the physical event (the effect).

2) The universe represents all physical things, and it's origin was a physical event.

3) Therefore, the universe most likely had a cause that was *separate and distinct* from the universe (the effect).


If the universe is "all physical things", the only thing that could be separate and distinct from the universe is a supernatural thing. A physical thing could not have been the cause of the universe because no physical thing would have existed yet to be the cause of - itself. (since the "universe" is all physical things)

This "argument" is an example of defining something into existence. It relies on defining "separate from the universe" as "supernatural" (an unwarranted assumption; we do not, and in fact cannot, know that the physical universe we see is the total of all things "natural" - and in fact, should the universe have a singularity at its origin, it winds up being entirely possible that there is a natural event "before" this point which cannot be detected from a viewpoint "after" that point). Once that definition is made, equating "God" with "supernatural" brings God into "logical existence". However, the argument also contains another cause of its own downfall; the first line should, if it to properly reflect current experience, note that all physical things known have a PHYSICAL cause. This then would require that the universe have a PHYSICAL cause "outside itself", but since "the universe" has also been arbitrarily defined as "all physical things", this equates to saying that the universe must have caused itself - a contradiction with the first proposition. Therefore, either the structure of the argument or the definitions used within it must be incorrect, and the argument is invalid. (There's actually another out here - as long as that escape clause "nearly all" appears in the first line, it remains possible that the universe is uncaused, since "nearly all" admits the possibility that some physical things would not require a cause outside of themselves.) It is, as practically all such attempts made here have been, a very old argument whose forms and flaws have been recognized for a very long time.
 

bmyers

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Originally posted by heusdens
Theists have absolutely a talent for misrepresenting reality, and for using pseudo-logic.

Let us investigate the argument.

So the argument is:

1. All things have a cause
2. The universe represents all things
3. The universe must therefore have a cause

Let us investigate this logic in another example.

1. All members of a football team have parents
2. The football team represents all members of the team
3. Therefore the football team must have a parent

As we can see, argument 3 does not follow from argument 1 and 2. The logic is therefore flawed.

Yes, but the flaw here - and note that the first argument isn't QUITE what was originally posted - is that there is no assumption that "represents" should be taken as "has all the qualities of". If the argument is:

1. All things have a cause
2. The universe IS a thing
3. Therefore, the universe has a cause.

...then it IS valid - at least IF the original assumption is true. But it must be recognized that this IS an assumption. We do not know of uncaused things, but cannot logically rule them out. Further, merely concluding that the universe "has a cause" says nothing about the nature of that cause. It could be either intelligent Creator or blind, random forces - there is no way to resolve that within the bounds of the argument presented.


And another

1. In a closed thermodynamic system the amount of entropy continually increases
2. The universe represents all closed thermodynamic systems
3. Therefore in the universe the amounf of entropy must continually increase

This argument states that the universe therefore would have encountered already a heat death, unless it began at some time.

Correct. And in fact, this IS a valid argument, AND as far as we can tell the universe taken as a whole IS a closed system (and therefore assumption 2 could be stated more simply). But this again simply says that the universe had a point of origin in time, and that, whatever the nature of that origin, the first assumption did not apply THEN even though it clearly applies now. This tells us a little bit about the nature of that point of origin (i.e., SOMETHING happened that lies outside the nature of the physical universe as we know it today), but again this doesn't rule out EITHER a "Creator" or utterly natural processes. (It does not require the assumption of a God to violate the current laws of thermodynamics; it is equally valid to assume that those "laws" were not yet in existence at the time of the creation event. Of the two, assuming that the laws were not yet in existence would be preferred via Occam's Razor, but then we have to also acknowledge that Occam's Razor is itself not a "law".)


But the universe can be no less a closed thermodynamic system in regard of the second law, then it would be in regard of the first law, which means that the amount of energy and matter are constant through all time. In fact that could only lead to the conclusion that the heat death already occured. All useuable amounts of energy would have already been used.

This is however not the case. I look outside and.... the sun still shines! The error in the argument is of course that the universe is not a closed system.

No - since no assumption has been made at this point about the rate of entropy increase. All that can be said from noting that the sun is still shining is that the heat death of the universe has not occured YET.



Let us use another example.

1. A finite line has a begin and an end
2. An infinite line consists of finite lines
3. Therefore an infinite line has a begin and an end.

As we can see, this line of argument is simply false, since an infinite line does not have a begin or an end.

The argument is false, but because the second assumption is incomplete. An infinite line may be viewed as consisting of an infinite number of finite lines - and (3) does not logically follow from that and (1).

(Just checking the logic from BOTH sides! :))
 
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