ARCHIVE: Presuppositionalism - What and Why?

Chileice

New member
Though your tete a tete with Hilston is interesting (if not ponderous at times) there is far too much for me to deal with. However, one element of the discussion drew my attention... that is the element of existence. Just last night as I was meditating on the Lord, several verses came to mind about existence. I had not yet read your latest posts but reading them now caused me to think again on the subject.

Originally posted by Balder
Being is not opposed to, conditioned by, or dependent upon anything. It is unlimited and unconstrained by "rules." That's what "absolute" means.

Originally posted by Hilston
Show me the absolute nature and openness of your own being. Give me a demonstration.


Originally posted by Balder
Are you prepared to seriously take up the practice of meditation? If you are, then you will surely get your demonstration, sooner or later.




Originally posted by Balder
Thus, Being did not “come into existence” at any time, or “come from” anywhere; it always is.


Originally posted by Hilston
Why do you believe this?

Originally posted by Balder

The alternative is incoherent. And the traditional theistic answer is problematic. Ask a Christian if there is a beginning to existence, they will say yes, there must be. Ask a Christian if God has a beginning, they will say no. Ask a Christian if God exists, they will say yes…


Originally posted by Balder
In the Buddhist (particularly Dzogchen) tradition, Being is also called
Mind-as-such (sems-nyid) or buddhanature. Being and knowing are a
unity;


Originally posted by Hilston

Then being isn't absolute, Balder.



Originally posted by Balder
Huh? Explain yourself, Hilston!

Originally posted by Balder
... self-existent pristine cognitiveness, as the nature of Being itself, is the ground of all existents.



Originally posted by Hilston

That's a tautology, Balder. Being as the ground of being is incoherent. It's not that impressive when you boil it down, Balder.


Originally posted by Balder
It’s not that impressive when you misrepresent it! I think you just didn't read it very carefully. I didn't say Being is the ground of Being, or even of Existence, but of existents. Being-as-such does not have a "ground,” a conditioning support, or a source.


Peace,
Balder

This passage from Paul in Acts 17 comes to mind:
Originally posted by Luke, quoting Paul
22 Then Paul stood in the midst of the Areopagus and said, "Men of Athens, I perceive that in all things you are very religious; 23 for as I was passing through and considering the objects of your worship, I even found an altar with this inscription:
TO THE UNKNOWN GOD.
Therefore, the One whom you worship without knowing, Him I proclaim to you: 24 God, who made the world and everything in it, since He is Lord of heaven and earth, does not dwell in temples made with hands. 25 Nor is He worshiped with men's hands, as though He needed anything, since He gives to all life, breath, and all things. 26 And He has made from one blood every nation of men to dwell on all the face of the earth, and has determined their preappointed times and the boundaries of their dwellings, 27 so that they should seek the Lord, in the hope that they might grope for Him and find Him, though He is not far from each one of us; 28 for in Him we live and move and have our being, as also some of your own poets have said, "For we are also His offspring.' 29 Therefore, since we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Divine Nature is like gold or silver or stone, something shaped by art and man's devising. 30 Truly, these times of ignorance God overlooked, but now commands all men everywhere to repent, 31 because He has appointed a day on which He will judge the world in righteousness by the Man whom He has ordained. He has given assurance of this to all by raising Him from the dead."

For in Him we live and move and have our being. Our existence is tied to the existence of God and God just exists. Therefore I think there is some congruency in the idea you present Balder, but likewise the Christian view is also congruent. Without the existent one who is "I AM", we are not.

Colossians 3 also sheds light on this idea:
Originally posted by Paul
1 If then you were raised with Christ, seek those things which are above, where Christ is, sitting at the right hand of God. 2 Set your mind on things above, not on things on the earth. 3 For you died, and your life is hidden with Christ in God. 4 When Christ who is our life appears, then you also will appear with Him in glory.
Our life, as Christians, is hidden in Christ who is in God who is existence itself. In some ways my existence transcends beginnings and ends because I am now in eternity with Him, though the fullness of that fact has yet to be revealed.
 

Balder

New member
Hilston,

This will be my third (admittedly short) post to you in a row, so I'll stop after this one because otherwise the material will just build up too much. You mentioned in one of your letters that responding was a waste of time you do not have, so I want to say that I will not be offended if you don't respond to every single sentence of my posts. Respond to whatever you like, and if you skip over something to which I am especially attached or to which I'd really like a response, I'll let you know.

We do seem to be a bit astray from the theme of this thread, but hopefully not so far astray that we can't get back on track.

Balder wrote:
As I said in earlier posts, two Buddhist tenets -- the primordiality of experience or "mind" and the radical interdependence and co-determination of phenomena -- are quite capable of accounting for the order of cosmos.


Hilston asked:
Did order always exist? Or did it arise phenomenologically out of chaos?

If by chaos you mean a condition in which phenomena exist without any sort of relationship or order, and if you are asking if such a condition preceded the emergence of “Reality,” then no, order has always existed, whether implicate or explicate. But since “order” actually implies a coherent arrangement of “parts,” I should clarify this statement. I do not believe there are any “primordial,” self-existent “parts” in the universe, any fundamental “things” that have always existed in relationship to each other. Rather, I think “order” as the creativity of SEPC has always been emerging or “appearing.”

Balder wrote:
The primordiality of "mind" is not something many physicists readily accept, though some (like David Bohm) speak about the primordiality of meaning (soma-significance and signa-somatics), ...


Don't forget about sogma-somnificance and simni-sigmatics.

Oh, you’re a yuck a minute, H. If you don’t know what the words mean, just ask.

Balder wrote [quoting Günther]:
Since meaning is always meaning for someone, who yet never stands outside the configuration of lived experience, this circumstance points to the human being (or existent) who, in the search for ‘meaningful existence’ – for the meaning of (his) existence – cannot but start from the 'experience' of existence as the being he himself is. Such a starting point precludes any attempt to resort to such notions as 'substance' (which means different things to different persons, be they philosophers or lesser mortals), or 'particular existent,' which is always meant to be a particular ‘this’ in contrast with some other particular 'that,' and about which propositions are entertained as to the ‘what’ this particular existent is, be this 'what' then declared to be a substance or an essence.


Why can't he just say that everything is relative and subjective, including everything he said in the above paragraph?

Because that’s not what he is talking about. He is stressing the primacy of the configurational nature of experience, as the true locus of meaning, and contrasting that to the familiar notions of “substance” and “essence” – two ways in which we typically attempt to classify and describe the world.

Do you believe in the permanence of the soul, Balder? Or do you hold to the doctrine of anatta? Is a yes or no answer possible? Or is that going require another prolix treatise, complete with Tibetan transliterations and hyphenated character strings?

Both.

Does it impress you that Dzogchen understood the first law of thermodynamics? Did the middle way lead him to that understanding? Were Joule and Helmholtz relying on Buddhist thought when they codified the conservation of mass and energy?

Something tells me that if you could show that a Biblical figure discovered the first law of thermodynamics, you would be waving that as a proud trophy in these conversations.

Balder wrote [quoting Günther]:
It does not indicate the obliteration of differentiations, nor does it imply a fusion of disparate entities. Rather, it emphasizes the presence of a continuum from which, negatively speaking, dichotomies such as exterior and interior, subject and object, are suspended. More positively stated, these dichotomies are seen and felt to interpenetrate 'like the reflection of the moon in water.'


Hilston said:
Do you understand that paragraph, Balder? Explain it to me.

He’s talking about non-duality. Perhaps we can approach it this way. How do you understand Christian doctrine to have resolved the “problem” of unity and multiplicity? Is it just that the Bible teaches that God is both Three and One, and you believe it without necessarily understanding it? Or do you have an intellectual understanding or a sense for how something could be both single and multiple? What is the relationship between the triune nature of the Godhead and the manifest universe, if any? Do you think the triune nature of the Godhead is mysterious, or is it really rather prosaic, like saying people are both “billions” and “one” because we’re all made of flesh, and yet we have different bodies?

What I am asking here, I guess, is, What is your understanding of the perichoresis of the Trinity? Theologian Wolfhart Pannenberg writes, "[T]he common essence of the three Persons does not have any separate reality prior to them but exists only in their interrelationship." What do you think of this claim?

Best wishes,
Balder
 

Hilston

Active member
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Balder, I thank you for your diligence in this discussion. Thanks also for recognizing my lame attempts at humor.

I will be out of town for several days beginning Thursday. However, I have to finish preparation for two presentations I'll be giving over the weekend, so I won't be very active on TOL in the meantime.

I look forward to continuing our discussion. Until then ...

Peas out.
Jim
 

Hilston

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Originally posted by Balder

Happy Thanksgiving, Jim.
Altho' I don't celebrate religious holidays, I do appreciate the spirit in which your well wishes are offered.

"Love, baby, that's where it's at." -- B52s

:j
 

God_Is_Truth

New member
Originally posted by Hilston

Altho' I don't celebrate religious holidays, I do appreciate the spirit in which your well wishes are offered.

"Love, baby, that's where it's at." -- B52s

:j

what about cultural holidays?
 

Hilston

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Hi Balder,

Having gone over past posts and after reading your most recent posts, I realize a need to shift gears. My initial efforts were put toward better understanding your brand of Buddhism. I asked you specific questions about some of your claims and I ended up trying to sort through lots of jargon and nomenclature that I had no hope of understanding on my own. I don't view this as productive anymore. For all of your effort and typing, I am thankful and appreciative, but no closer to understanding even the basics of what you espouse. So if you will indulge me, I wish to ask you more general questions in light of my (admittedly inadequate) understanding of Buddhism. First, I will answer your questions.

Hilston wrote:
There is only one true system of logic, that which derives from the revealed nature of God. And then there are human corruptions of it.


Balder writes:
Do you know this one true logical system, or only the human corruptions of it?
I know aspects of the true logical system insofar as I understand what the Bible has to say about logic, by description and by example. I'm no logician, but I have a basic understanding. I'm also familiar with some of the human corruptions of logic.

Balder writes:
Exactly how and where is it revealed? How do you tell if you've discerned it correctly, and not been misled by fallible human corruptions of logic in the process of your evaluation of it?
The true logical system is both demonstrated and affirmed in the Judeo-Christian Bible. My knowledge of the general reliability of my logical processes is based on faith in the Judeo-Christian Bible. Of course, my initial use of logic, prior to my introduction to the Bible, came quite naturally, as it does with most everyone. However, my later encounters with the teachings of the Bible explained to me the nearly universal recognition and/or use of the laws of logic.

Hilston asked: Are Knowing and Being mutually inclusive? Can an unconscious entity have Being?

Balder writes:
Yes, an unconscious entity can have being. Unconsciousness is still a form of consciousness, albeit often a stepped down, non-self-reflective form of consciousness.
So, would you say a shard of metal is an unconscious entity with a stepped down, non-self-reflective form of consciousness?

Hilston asked:
Why do you believe the teachings of the Dzogchen tradition to be true?

You wrote that "there are in fact quite a number of teachings that give a glimpse of what 'lies beyond.'" Why do you believe that these teachings are true?

Why do you believe Siddhartha was right?


Balder writes:
There are many reasons, but the only one that I think will carry much weight with you is the following: it is a humanly inexplicable gift of faith.
Is your belief in the verity and righteousness of Dzogchen tradition and Siddhartha's teachings based on the existence of the "humanly inexplicable gift of faith" or the object of that faith, i.e. that which you believe in. In other words, in what or who have you placed your faith?

Balder writes:
We do seem to be a bit astray from the theme of this thread, but hopefully not so far astray that we can't get back on track.
I agree, and that's partly my fault. I was genuinely interested (before I knew what I was getting into) in what you believed. Now, I'm not convinced that there is any need whatever to understand it. In fact, it seems deliberately obtuse, and you seem to be wholeheartedly swept away by its ambiguities. Your view seems to preclude any true desire or goal to understand with clarity, or to impart clear understanding to others.

Hilston wrote: Don't forget about sogma-somnificance and simni-sigmatics.

Balder writes:
Oh, you’re a yuck a minute, H. If you don’t know what the words mean, just ask.
Balder, are you really that out of touch with the rest of humanity that you actually thought you could use these terms without defining them? What planet are you from? Line up a thousand people, and chances are, all one thousand people would look at you sideways if you used one or both of these terms.

Hilston asked: Do you believe in the permanence of the soul, Balder? Or do you hold to the doctrine of anatta? Is a yes or no answer possible? Or is that going require another prolix treatise, complete with Tibetan transliterations and hyphenated character strings?

Balder writes:
Both.
I now realize that I should have asked one question at a time. Do you believe in the permanence of the soul?

Hilston asked:
Does it impress you that Dzogchen understood the first law of thermodynamics? Did the middle way lead him to that understanding? Were Joule and Helmholtz relying on Buddhist thought when they codified the conservation of mass and energy?

Balder writes:
Something tells me that if you could show that a Biblical figure discovered the first law of thermodynamics, you would be waving that as a proud trophy in these conversations.
Then you don't understand my argument. There are plenty of Biblical data to affirm the first Law of Thermo', and myriad other recent scientific discoveries. There are plenty of data to show that the Biblical worldview and the ancients had vastly superior knowledge of science, mathematics, nature, etc. But I don't wave these things as proud trophies because it's not a biblical way to approach the matter.

Balder writes:
How do you understand Christian doctrine to have resolved the “problem” of unity and multiplicity? Is it just that the Bible teaches that God is both Three and One, and you believe it without necessarily understanding it?
Yes.

Balder writes:
Or do you have an intellectual understanding or a sense for how something could be both single and multiple?
Neither.

Balder writes:
What is the relationship between the triune nature of the Godhead and the manifest universe, if any?
I see a relationship between the Son's incarnation and the fact that the Son is described as holding the physical universe together. I see a relationship in the manifest universe between decree, vocalization/articulation, and actualization and the triune Godhead. There are others.

Balder writes:
Do you think the triune nature of the Godhead is mysterious, or is it really rather prosaic, like saying people are both “billions” and “one” because we’re all made of flesh, and yet we have different bodies?
It's mysterious.

Balder writes:
What I am asking here, I guess, is, What is your understanding of the perichoresis of the Trinity? Theologian Wolfhart Pannenberg writes, "[T]he common essence of the three Persons does not have any separate reality prior to them but exists only in their interrelationship." What do you think of this claim?
I mostly agree with it, although I am loath to agree fully, not having explored what he intends by certain terms.

In a book titled Buddhism: The Light of Asia, by Kenneth K.S. Ch'en, the author quotes: "Not to commit any sin, to do good, to purify one's own mind, that is the teaching of the Buddha." He goes on to define sin as "any act that is harmful to oneself or to another." Do you agree with these statements? If so, why is it your desire to eschew sin and to do good and to purify your mind?
 

Clete

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Jim,

I have a question for you.

How central to presuppositionalism is the doctrine of regeneration and total depravity? Please feel free to elaborate as much as possible.

Great post by the way!

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
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Hilston

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An excellent question, Clete.

Clete writes:
How central to presuppositionalism is the doctrine of regeneration and total depravity? Please feel free to elaborate as much as posible.
Without regeneration as the impetus for embracing the verity of the Scriptures you're left with evidentialism. One of the most egregious errors of Bob Enyart's apologetic is his claim that his belief in the Bible is based on scienfitic evidence. It's important not to confuse this with the fact that all men know of God's existence and their accountability to Him without the Bible saying the so. They have both mediate (through experience and discursive thought) and immediate (intuitive) knowledge of God. When the Bible comes along, it condemns man and tells him what he knows to be true, but prefers to suppress. Total depravity makes it impossible for an unregenerated person to fully accept the Bible's assessment of himself.

For example, while I do tell materialist-atheists what the Bible says about them, I don't expect them to accept it because of their depravity. But that doesn't mean they are unable to rationally process or comprehend the principles. When they ask me how I know what I know, I bring it back to regeneration. When they ask why they should believe what I'm saying, given that they themselves are not regenerated, I say, because, if they do not, their worldview is reduced to absurdity and they become fools. The fear of the Lord is the beginning of true and solid knowledge and wisdom, not scientific investigation, empirical evidence and discursive reasoning. The latter only makes sense in light of the former. The latter avoids logical absurdity only in light of the former.

If they say to me, "How is it fair that you have a solid grounding for your worldview based on regeneration, yet you turn around and tell us to believe your Bible without regeneration?" I tell them that it's the only choice they have if they want to be rational and to avoid absurdity in their existence. If they prefer irrationality and absurdity (and I have had atheists tell me exactly that, in so many words), then they can continue to reject the Bible. If they don't want irrationality and absurdity to obtain in their worldview, then I urge them to repent of their sins, throw themselves on the mercy of God, and beg for Christ's forgiveness for their rebellion.

So, to answer your question, it appears to me, from a biblical standpoint, that recognizing the role of regeneration and the fact of total depravity is vital to a coherent biblical apologetic.

Much more could be said, of course. Let me know if this sparks any further questions.
 

Nathon Detroit

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Originally posted by Hilston
One of the most egregious errors of Bob Enyart's apologetic is his claim that his belief in the Bible is based on scienfitic evidence.
Uh... just to set the record straight here.... I think I can speak for Bob that he views scientific evidence as only one of many proofs that the Bible is the word of God.

I just want to clarify so that the position is not overstated.
 

Hilston

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Originally posted by Knight

Uh... just to set the record straight here.... I think I can speak for Bob that he views scientific evidence as only one of many proofs that the Bible is the word of God.

I just want to clarify so that the position is not overstated.
I'm not talking about what Bob considers to be "proof that the Bible is the word of God." I'm talking about how Bob knows, and why he believes the Bible is the word of God, not how he proves it. These are two different issues entirely.

Bob stated unequivocally to atheist Michael Shermer that the reason he believes in the Bible is because he has determined its verity based on scientific evidence.

You said Bob views scientific evidence as one of many proofs. Since you're speaking for Bob, what are the non-scientific proofs Bob bases his belief upon?
 

Clete

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Jim,

I understand that all worldviews other than the Biblical one are logically incoherent. In fact, I find that to be the most compelling argument for the truth of the Scriptures that I have ever heard. I understand that the existence of the Christian God (and all that entails) must be presupposed in order for existence itself to be made any sense of. What I am not convinced of, however, is the necessity of my having been regenerated in order for me to have understood this and excepted it as true.

You said...
If they say to me, "How is it fair that you have a solid grounding for your worldview based on regeneration, yet you turn around and tell us to believe your Bible without regeneration?" I tell them that it's the only choice they have if they want to be rational and to avoid absurdity in their existence. If they prefer irrationality and absurdity (and I have had atheists tell me exactly that, in so many words), then they can continue to reject the Bible. If they don't want irrationality and absurdity to obtain in their worldview, then I urge them to repent of their sins, throw themselves on the mercy of God, and beg for Christ's forgiveness for their rebellion.
This paragraph is striking to me because it is in effect the exact same thing that I would say to an atheist but without any reference to the idea of regeneration. I, not believing that neither regeneration nor total depravity are correct theologies can very easily see myself saying to an atheist, "If you prefer irrationality and absurdity, then you can continue to reject the Bible. If you don't want irrationality and absurdity to obtain in their worldview, then I urge you to repent of your sins, throw yourself on the mercy of God, and beg for Christ's forgiveness for your rebellion."
So my question is, why regeneration? It seems based on this one response that it is simply a separate theology which you plug in when it is appropriate but some of the things I've read give it a much more central position. In fact, from what I understand (and I could be wrong) of what Van Til taught, regeneration is foundational to the presuppositional apologetic; that if regeneration is not a true theology then presuppositionalism, while still very effective, cannot be held as the only permissible apologetic.
You seem to make the case for the exclusivity of presuppositionalism based on the idea that it is the only apologetic with Biblical precedent, which is an argument that I can live with. Others that I've read, however, seem to make presuppositionalism simply an extension of reformed theology. They seem to base their belief in presuppositionalism on the same basis that they believe in the rest of reformed theology (i.e. total depravity, unconditional election, irresistible grace, limited atonement, regeneration, predestination, the exhaustive foreknowledge of God, etc, etc.).
What I am wondering is whether or not you make this same connection with reformed theology and if so, is it by preference or by necessity? Is presuppositionalism dependant upon reformed theology or are they simply compatible?
I hope the intent of my question is clear, let me know if I need to rephrase it.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 

Nathon Detroit

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Originally posted by Hilston
You said Bob views scientific evidence as one of many proofs. Since you're speaking for Bob, what are the non-scientific proofs Bob bases his belief upon?
My guess is Bob would say that God exists and the Bible is the reliable word of God based on many evidences i.e., historical evidence (not just archaeological but also social, traditional and civil etc.), then there is the evidence we can find when exploring the issue of absolute morality and finally the evidence we can find when examining the Bible itself, its claims and the proof of such claims. These are all pieces of evidence that make a compelling argument for the existence of God and the reliability that the Bible is indeed His word.
 

Hilston

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Knight writes:
My guess is Bob would say that God exists and the Bible is the reliable word of God based on many evidences i.e., historical evidence (not just archaeological but also social, traditional and civil etc.), ...
I asked what, other than scientific evidence, Enyart based his belief on. You just gave me more scientific evidence.

Knight writes:
... then there is the evidence we can find when exploring the issue of absolute morality ...
More scientific evidence.

Knight writes:
... and finally the evidence we can find when examining the Bible itself, its claims and the proof of such claims.
And yet more scientific evidence. All of these involve observable, testable, repeatable propositions and conclusions, Knight. These are all scientific; they all come under the heading of "inferred via the scientific method." You said Bob had non-scientific reasons for believing the Bible. What are they? Or do you now wish to retract your earlier claim and take Bob at his word that his belief is based on scientific evidence?

Knight writes:
These are all pieces of evidence that make a compelling argument for the existence of God and the reliability that the Bible is indeed His word.
So far, right? That's the trouble with evidentialists, their "God of the Gaps" is only as convincing as the atheists lack of explanation. For every explanation he invents, the atheist becomes wiser in his own conceit, thanks to the evidentialist apologists like Knight and Enyart who use unbiblical arguments and incoherent reasoning, failing to sufficiently dismantle the gainsayer's view and expose it for the irrational house of cards that it is.
 

Nathon Detroit

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Originally posted by Hilston

I asked what, other than scientific evidence, Enyart based his belief on. You just gave me more scientific evidence.

More scientific evidence.
You assert traditional, societal and moral evidence is scientific evidence? :confused:

If so... in your opinion what type of evidence WOULDN'T be considered scientific evidence?
 

Nathon Detroit

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LIFETIME MEMBER
Originally posted by Hilston
So far, right? That's the trouble with evidentialists, their "God of the Gaps" is only as convincing as the atheists lack of explanation. For every explanation he invents, the atheist becomes wiser in his own conceit, thanks to the evidentialist apologists like Knight and Enyart who use unbiblical arguments and incoherent reasoning, failing to sufficiently dismantle the gainsayer's view and expose it for the irrational house of cards that it is.
Well... all I can say is praise the Lord for these so called "unbiblical arguments and incoherent reasonings" because I, my wife, my 6 kids, my dad, my sister and her husband and their 4 kids, my wife's sister and her husband and their 2 children all have come to know the Lord through these incoherent reasonings. :D
 

Clete

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Originally posted by Hilston
So far, right? That's the trouble with evidentialists, their "God of the Gaps" is only as convincing as the atheists lack of explanation. For every explanation he invents, the atheist becomes wiser in his own conceit, thanks to the evidentialist apologists like Knight and Enyart who use unbiblical arguments and incoherent reasoning, failing to sufficiently dismantle the gainsayer's view and expose it for the irrational house of cards that it is.
This seems a bit overstated, I think.
First of all, the atheist's lack of ability to explain the evidence is a permanent condition. It’s not like there is some eureka moment coming in which some huge break through in science proves the nonexistence of God. That is not going to happen because it cannot happen. A point with which I am sure you agree.
Secondly, the only objection you have with use of such evidence is when one uses it in an apologetic setting. It's not that you think that the evidence is somehow wrong or misleading, or that the conclusions based on that evidence are in error, it's simply the circumstances of their application that you object too. Isn't that correct, or have I missed something?

This is where I find a problem with the insistence upon the exclusivity of the presuppositional apologetic. Even (especially) if one assumes that regeneration plays a role here. If regeneration is true, the fact is, that you cannot tell who is and who isn't regenerate until after they have believed. You also hold that those who are regenerate are able to use logic and the scientific method without "question begging" and are able to come to genuinely reliable conclusions. So what if Bob Enyart was regenerated when he began looking at this evidence and was therefore able to accurately analyze that evidence and come to a conclusion that was not only correct but that he could be certain of based on the correctness of his Biblical worldview.

Resting in Him,
Clete
 
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