Jerry,
Is it your intention to argue that the bible is false?
If not, then is your intention to ignore the argument or what?
Your argument is based on a false premise, the idea that God has foreknowledge.
If God exists in "time" then His foreknowledge must be unchanging. That knowledge is settled and whatever takes place in history must come into being exactly as God foreknew it would happen. That is the "settled view of history."
However, God exists outside of time then with Him there is no "before" or "after." William Ames, often known as "the Learned Doctor Ames" because of his great intellectual stature among Puritans, said the following:
"There is properly only one act of the will in God because in Him all things are simultaneous and there is nothing before or after."
John Wesley, who along with his brother Charles founded the Methodist movement, wrote the following about this subject:
"The sum of all is this: the almighty, all-wise God sees and knows, from everlasting to everlasting, all that is, that was, and that is to come, through one eternal now. With him nothing is either past or future, but all things equally present. He has, therefore, if we speak according to the truth of things, no foreknowledge, no afterknowledge. This would be ill consistent with the Apostle's words, 'With him is no variableness or shadow of turning;' and with the account he gives of himself by the Prophet, 'I the Lord change not.' Yet when he speaks to us, knowing whereof we are made, knowing the scantiness of our understanding, he lets himself down to our capacity, and speaks of himself after the manner of men. Thus, in condescension to our weakness, he speaks of his own purpose, counsel, plan, foreknowledge. Not that God has any need of counsel, of purpose, or of planning his work beforehand. Far be it from us to impute these to the Most High; to measure him by ourselves! It is merely in compassion to us that he speaks thus of himself, as foreknowing the things in heaven or earth, and as predestinating or fore-ordaining them. But can we possibly imagine that these expressions are to be taken literally? To one who was so gross in his conceptions might he not say, 'Thinkest thou I am such an one as thyself' Not so: As the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than thy ways. I know, decree, work, in such a manner as it is not possible for thee to conceive: But to give thee some faint, glimmering knowledge of my ways, I use the language of men, and suit myself to thy apprehensions in this thy infant state of existence."
The LORD exists in "one eternal now," meaning that with Him there is neither past nor future so when the Scriptures refer to His "foreknowledge" what is said is not to be taken in a "literal" manner. Instead, what is being employed is the "figurative" language spoken of here:
"Anthropopatheia ; or, Condescension...Ascribing to God what belongs to human and rational beings, irrational creatures, or inanimate things."
