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  • Lon
    replied
    Originally posted by Idolater View Post
    Job 9:8

    Job 9:8 He alone stretches out the heavens and treads on the waves of the sea.


    Matthew 14:25 Shortly before dawn Jesus went out to them, walking on the lake. 26 When the disciples saw him walking on the lake, they were terrified. “It’s a ghost,” they said, and cried out in fear.

    27 But Jesus immediately said to them: “Take courage! It is I. Don’t be afraid.”


    32 And when they climbed into the boat, the wind died down. 33 Then those who were in the boat worshiped him, saying, “Truly you are the Son of God.”

    Leave a comment:


  • Lon
    replied
    Revelation 19:10;22:9
    Twice, the Apostle John fell to worship angels.
    Twice, he was told not to do so.

    Revelation 1:9-18
    The first mention of John falling to worship the Savior, there is no rebuke at all.

    John 20:28 Thomas said to Jesus, "You are the Lord of me, and God of me!"

    -I don't believe anybody can posit that the Lord Jesus Christ wasn't worshiped, thus God at this venture. There is no possibility of contention of these scriptures. -Lon

    Leave a comment:


  • Lon
    replied
    Right Divider Shows Jesus is God

    From RightDivider's blog:

    Rom 14:10-12 KJV
    (10) But why dost thou judge thy brother? or why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ.
    (11) For it is written, As I live, saith the Lord, every knee shall bow to me, and every tongue shall confess to God.
    (12) So then every one of us shall give account of himself to God.

    Leave a comment:


  • Lon
    replied
    Php 2:6 thought it not robbery to be equal with God

    Originally posted by nikolai_42 View Post
    Can someone be equal with God yet not be God?

    Jesus says people are equal to angels in their immortal state (Luke 20:36). In John 5:18 it is plainly stated that Jesus made Himself equal with God - therefore not just an exalted human (unless you believe people can attain that status in contradiction to Luke 20:36).

    Hebrews says He was made a little lower than the angels for the tasting of death. In other words He was humbled by being incarnated. So says Philippians 2:6. He was in the form of God but humbled Himself and took on the form of man. God became man.
    I truly hope some who are open, are reading God's word here that they may be corrected. Good post Nikolai

    Leave a comment:


  • Lon
    replied
    Originally posted by oatmeal View Post
    Are you still trapped in the trinity?

    Too bad so sad
    Er, trolling. Try not to abuse grace given. This thread invites substantiation and a serious mind. Soundbytes are not it.

    I can have you removed for such if that is your preference?

    Leave a comment:


  • PneumaPsucheSoma
    replied
    Originally posted by fishrovmen View Post
    [MENTION=14978]PneumaPsucheSoma[/MENTION],
    Could you confirm the accuracy or correct these definitions for me?
    Innascibility - the self existence and uncreatedness of God the Father as distinct paternity of the Son?
    Yes. Having no origin. Contrasts to filiation, the generation of the Son.

    Fontal Plenitude - the source of fullness ?
    Yes.

    and I believe I saw you use the word "primity" or something similar; what is that?
    Thanks
    Primity is the quality of being first.

    Originally posted by fishrovmen View Post
    [MENTION=14978]PneumaPsucheSoma[/MENTION],
    Could you please define innascibility, fontal plenitude and primity and explain how they relate to God the Father?
    The Father is Self-Conscious Self-Existence and non-originate.

    The Father is the one true and living God, who is Spirit and whose eternal and uncreated Logos is the eternal and uncreated Son. Paternity and filiation. Fontal plenitude and spiration.

    Leave a comment:


  • fishrovmen
    replied
    [MENTION=14978]PneumaPsucheSoma[/MENTION],
    Could you please define innascibility, fontal plenitude and primity and explain how they relate to God the Father?

    Leave a comment:


  • fishrovmen
    replied
    [MENTION=14978]PneumaPsucheSoma[/MENTION],
    Could you confirm the accuracy or correct these definitions for me?
    Innascibility - the self existence and uncreatedness of God the Father as distinct paternity of the Son?
    Fontal Plenitude - the source of fullness ?
    and I believe I saw you use the word "primity" or something similar; what is that?
    Thanks
    Last edited by fishrovmen; March 18, 2019, 12:28 AM. Reason: clarity addition

    Leave a comment:


  • Jerry Shugart
    replied
    Originally posted by aikido7 View Post
    During his lifetime, Jesus himself didn't call himself God or even the Son of God.
    You are mistaken because in the following verse The Lord Jesus acknowledged that He claimed to be the Son of God:
    "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?" (Jn.10:36).

    In fact, this is the reason that the leaders of the Jews wanted Him to die:
    "The Jews answered him, We have a law, and by our law he ought to die, because he made himself the Son of God" (Jn.19:7).

    The Jews knew He was claiming to be the Son God and that is why they wanted to put Him to death and the Lord Jesus never denied that He is the Son of God. And earlier He issued this stern warning to those who denied His identity as God:
    "And he said unto them, Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world. I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins" (Jn.8:23-24).

    Are you willing to bet your eternal destiny of being forever with the Lord away by continuing to deny that the Lord Jesus is God?

    Leave a comment:


  • PneumaPsucheSoma
    replied
    If someone hasn’t extensively studied the Cappadocian Fathers’ writings and contributions to Theology Proper while having an understanding of linguistics, it’s invalid to even attempt to speak against the Trinity doctrine. All the arguments have already been addressed and defeated.

    Leave a comment:


  • aikido7
    replied
    During his lifetime, Jesus himself didn't call himself God and didn't consider himself God, and ... none of his disciples had any inkling at all that he was God. ...

    During his lifetime, Jesus himself didn't call himself God or even the Son of God. If Jesus didn't consider himself God, so none of his disciples had any inkling at all that he was God.

    We do find Jesus calling himself God in the Gospel of John. Jesus says things like, "Before Abraham was, I am." And, "I and the Father are one," and, "If you've seen me, you've seen the Father."

    These are all statements you find only in the Gospel of John, and that's striking because we have earlier gospels and we have the writings of Paul, and in none of them is there any indication that Jesus said such things. ...

    To me. it’s completely implausible that Matthew, Mark and Luke would not mention that Jesus called himself God if that's what he was declaring about himself.

    That would be a rather important point to make. The Gospel of John is providing a theological understanding of Jesus that is not what was historically accurate.

    John, for example, asserts that Jesus died on the Day of Preparation--a full 24 hours BEFORE what the other what the other three gospels say.

    Again, John is an example of early Christian theology. His gospels depict Jesus as a mystical philosopher who talks on and on in long, dense theological discourses that are all about himself and the importance of believing in him.

    There is no Last Supper, no parables or short sayings, no concern for the poor. And the word “repent” is found nowhere in John.



    [B]Again [*sigh*] “Son of Adam", “Son of man” or “Like a man” are the same thing.

    The four gospels introduce a new definite form ["ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου”] literally "the son of the man."

    It is an awkward and ambiguous expression in Greek. Nevertheless, in all four gospels it is used only by Jesus (except once the theological Gospel of John]. The phrase functions as an emphatic equivalent of the first-person pronoun, I/me/my.

    Leave a comment:


  • Idolater
    replied
    Originally posted by aikido7 View Post
    “Son of man” [or “Son of Adam”] simply translates to “a human being”

    "Son of man" is the translation of one Hebrew and one Aramaic phrase used in the Hebrew Bible.
    As generally interpreted by Jews, "son of man" denotes mankind generally in contrast to deity or godhead, with special reference to their weakness and frailty.
    How is "Son of God" generally interpreted? John 10:36 KJV Matthew 16:16 KJV

    Leave a comment:


  • oatmeal
    replied
    Originally posted by Lon View Post
    This thread is specifically for triune believers. No other need or should post here.

    I'm personally boycotting these cultists threads against our view. I have found none of them are here to learn a thing and they certainly don't make a cogent or compelling presentation. Its a waste of bandwidth and time from my experience. This thread is for posting material to help us on our way.
    Are you still trapped in the trinity?

    Too bad so sad

    Leave a comment:


  • aikido7
    replied
    “Son of man” [or “Son of Adam”] simply translates to “a human being”

    "Son of man" is the translation of one Hebrew and one Aramaic phrase used in the Hebrew Bible.
    As generally interpreted by Jews, "son of man" denotes mankind generally in contrast to deity or godhead, with special reference to their weakness and frailty.

    Leave a comment:


  • Ask Mr. Religion
    replied
    At the risk of having so many of us renting our shirts and throwing dust in the air at such blasphemy, there is no doubt where Jerry stands:

    Originally posted by Jerry Shugart View Post
    It was as Man that the Lord Jesus came down from heaven. That means that He was Man before He was born of Mary.And this verse teaches practically the same thing:
    "What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?" (Jn.6:62).

    The Lord Jesus was in heaven as Man before He came down to earth and was born of Mary.
    Originally posted by Jerry Shugart View Post
    It was as Man that the Lord Jesus came down from heaven. That means that He was Man before He was born of Mary.
    Originally posted by Jerry Shugart View Post

    We also know that the Lord Jesus Himself said this:
    "What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?" (Jn.6:62).

    So by the Lord's own words He was in heaven as Man before He came down to the earth and was born of Mary.
    Originally posted by Jerry Shugart View Post

    The Lord Jesus as Man and as God existed in eternity. So neither nature was dependant on the other. After all, we see that the Lord Jesus does not change:
    "Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever" (Heb.13:8).


    So by the Lord's own words He was in heaven as Man before He came down to the earth and was born of Mary.
    Originally posted by Jerry Shugart View Post
    The Lord Jesus has always been both God and Man. So that Human was not created.
    Originally posted by Jerry Shugart View Post
    Is that all you can say after I presented you the evidence that the Lord Jesus existed as Man before He was born of Mary?
    ...and so many more in the same thread above.

    Sadly, Jerry is hung up, erroneously, on "Son of Man" usage in Scripture:
    http://theologyonline.com/showthread...=1#post4358561

    Read and heed, Jerry:
    Spoiler

    Our Lord was (is) fully God and fully man in an indissoluble union whereby the second subsistence of the Trinity assumed a human nature that cannot be separated, divided, mixed, or confused.


    One can best understand this mystical union (hypostatic union, together united in one distinguishable subsistence) by examining what it is not, thus from the process of elimination determine what it must be.


    The mystical union of the divine and human natures of Our Lord is not:


    1. a denial that our Lord was truly God (Ebionites, Elkasites, Arians);
    2. a dissimilar or different substance (anomoios) with the Father (semi-Arianism);
    3. a denial that our Lord had a genuine human soul (Apollinarians);
    4. a denial of a distinct subsistence in the Trinity (Dynamic Monarchianism);
    5. God acting merely in the forms of the Son and Spirit (Modalistic Monarchianism/Sabellianism/United Pentecostal Church);
    6. a mixture or change when the two natures were united (Eutychianism/Monophysitism);
    7. two distinct subsistences (often called persons) (Nestorianism);
    8. a denial of the true humanity of Christ (docetism);
    9. a view that God the Son laid aside all or some of His divine attributes (kenoticism);
    10. a view that there was a communication of the attributes between the divine and human natures (Lutheranism's genus maiestaticum, with respect to the Lord's Supper); and
    11. a view that our Lord existed independently as a human before God entered His body (Adoptionism).


    The Chalcedonian Definition is one of the few statements that all of orthodox Christendom recognizes as the most faithful summary of the teachings of the Scriptures on the matter of the Incarnate Christ. The Chalcedonian Definition was the answer to the many heterodoxies identified above during the third century.


    AMR

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