John 18:5 what was Jesus saying?

God's Truth

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Is that surprising?

He just identified himself boldly as the one they were hell bent on murdering

But why did they draw back and fall to the ground after Jesus said I am he?

John 18:6 When Jesus said, "I am he," they drew back and fell to the ground.


And, why does Jesus say they will know I am he when he is crucified if he had just told them I am he because they didn't know it was him (according to your reasoning)? You should answer instead of just ask questions.



John 8:28 So Jesus said, "When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am He
 

JudgeRightly

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Are you blind?

Pretty sure he's not, and explained his position already.

Either way, here's the Greek:



Notice how "He" is in brackets?

Open up the NKJV. Notice how "He" is italicized?

The reason for both of the above is that the word "He" was added by the translators, but was not part of the manuscripts that we have of the Greek New Testament.

"eigo eimi" does not mean "I am He."

It means "I am."
 

7djengo7

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Just noticed your avatar hahaha

That's pretty funny!

Thanks, JR.

Just a little precaution I felt might be helpful to take, what with all the computer viruses going around these days. Also, I have been trying to write longer posts than normal, so that my avatar keeps a safe distance away from other avatars.
 

God's Truth

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No. Are you stupid?

You must be stupid to think you can rewrite all the Bible translations.

And you are blind, for I showed you many times the scripture. I couldn't care less if you believe the Bible or not, you were given the scripture and you kept saying where does it say it.
 

God's Truth

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Pretty sure he's not, and explained his position already.
I gave the scripture and he kept saying he didn't see it.

So he must be blind.

If he isn't stupid then he should have said he sees it but doesn't agree.

Either way, here's the Greek:

Notice how "He" is in brackets?

Open up the NKJV. Notice how "He" is italicized?

The reason for both of the above is that the word "He" was added by the translators, but was not part of the manuscripts that we have of the Greek New Testament.

"eigo eimi" does not mean "I am He."

It means "I am."

I couldn't care any less what you think the translation SHOULD say.

Not only that, it changes NOTHING.

To have that 'he' at the end changes nothing.

All that attempt to look to the Greek doesn't help anyone.
 

7djengo7

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You must be stupid to think you can rewrite all the Bible translations.

Oh? So are you telling me you think you "can rewrite all the Bible translations"?

I do not know what (if anything) it would even be to "rewrite all the Bible translations".

And you are blind, for I showed you many times the scripture.

You never showed me the Greek. Is the Greek not Scripture?

I couldn't care less if you believe the Bible or not,

Why is that?

you were given the scripture and you kept saying where does it say it.

When did you give me the Greek?
 

God's Truth

New member
Oh? So are you telling me you think you "can rewrite all the Bible translations"?
The Bible is already translated. You think you could do it better?

And where do you ever get that I am trying to rewrite them all?
I do not know what (if anything) it would even be to "rewrite all the Bible translations".

I looked up about 27 different Bible translations and they all said 'he' at the end.

You want to change every single one of those Bible translations?



You never showed me the Greek. Is the Greek not Scripture?


We don't have to learn another scripture to know God's Truth.

You don't know Greek well enough anyway.

It keeps people further from God's Truth.


Why is that?



When did you give me the Greek?



Who said I gave you the Greek?
 

7djengo7

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I gave the scripture and he kept saying he didn't see it.

So he must be blind.

If he isn't stupid then he should have said he sees it but doesn't agree.



I couldn't care any less what you think the translation SHOULD say.

Your word, "he", is not even a translation; putting the pronoun, "he", where you seem to really want it to be, and where the KJV has it, is not translation.

Not only that, it changes NOTHING.

To have that 'he' at the end changes nothing.

Oh? Then why are you so zealous in your clamorous demands for everybody to agree with you in thinking that it is legitimate to have that pronoun there?

All that attempt to look to the Greek doesn't help anyone.

How do you feel that it helps anyone for you to deny that the Scripture is written in Greek? Do you think Jesus spoke English, and that John wrote his Gospel in English?
 

God's Truth

New member
Your word, "he", is not even a translation; putting the pronoun, "he", where you seem to really want it to be, and where the KJV has it, is not translation.

The Bible is translated and the word 'he' is used in all the translations.



Oh? Then why are you so zealous in your clamorous demands for everybody to agree with you in thinking that it is legitimate to have that pronoun there?

That is your imagination.
I wasn't even talking to you. I was talking to Oatmeal and the 'he' at the end wasn't the topic of our discussion.


How do you feel that it helps anyone for you to deny that the Scripture is written in Greek? Do you think Jesus spoke English, and that John wrote his Gospel in English?




God brings His Word to us in our language. We don't have to learn another language to know God's Truth.
 

Aimiel

Well-known member
I don't go by others saying all translations are wrong. Who are they to condemn scriptures and rewrite ALL the Bibles? As for you asking if I have been following the thread or just skimming---I don't read every post, especially if it is long and not to me; not even skim them.
Now back to the scriptures where Jesus says I am he---what happened after he said that? Try answering the question. What happened? Stop supporting people who draw distrust to the written Word of God.

You're the one showing distrust in God's Holy Word. If the original text did NOT have the word, "He," in it, why are you defending the translator who added it? By doing so you're asking for all the plagues that are in The Holy Scriptures. :duh:
 

God's Truth

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You're the one showing distrust in God's Holy Word. If the original text did NOT have the word, "He," in it, why are you defending the translator who added it? By doing so you're asking for all the plagues that are in The Holy Scriptures. :duh:

You are so dishonest and shameful.
 

7djengo7

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The Bible is already translated. You think you could do it better?

Better than what?

In John 18:5, what Greek word has been translated into English by the pronoun, 'he'? Answer: none. Your cherished "he" is not a translation; it's something that has been added to John 18:5.

And where do you ever get that I am trying to rewrite them all?

Walmart.

I looked up about 27 different Bible translations and they all said 'he' at the end.

The English pronoun, 'he', is not a translation, though--not in a single one of the "27 different Bible translations" you "looked up".

You want to change every single one of those Bible translations?

What (if anything) do you mean?

I likely would not even be willing to grant you that all of the different things you are calling "Bible translations" are Bible translations.


We don't have to learn another scripture to know God's Truth.

You're one of the most pompous, arrogant idiots on TOL, seeing as you actually have the audacity to call yourself "God's Truth", and sit there and fart in your broken English at everybody who dissents from your stupidities. What we don't have to do, in order to know God's Truth, is to take you and your anti-intellectualism seriously.

You don't know Greek well enough anyway.

I know enough, though, to see that the word "he" has no basis in the Greek of John 18:5.

It keeps people further from God's Truth.

Since, by "God's Truth", you are referring to yourself and your anti-Christ heresies and stupidities, I'd say such "social distancing" as you're complaining about, here, is quite a boon for those keeping their distance from you.

Who said I gave you the Greek?

You said you "gave me the scripture". Was the Gospel of John not written in Greek?
 

7djengo7

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You're the one showing distrust in God's Holy Word. If the original text did NOT have the word, "He," in it, why are you defending the translator who added it? By doing so you're asking for all the plagues that are in The Holy Scriptures. :duh:

And, Aimiel, I would add that he or she (if a translator) left off being a translator while adding it, because the pronoun, "he", in the phrase, "I am he", is, as you say, an addition, rather than a translation!
 

7djengo7

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The Bible is translated and the word 'he' is used in all the translations.

The English pronoun, 'he', is not a translation, or the result of a translation.


That is your imagination.

Oh, so then you don't think that the presence of the pronoun, 'he', there, is legitimate.

I wasn't even talking to you. I was talking to Oatmeal and the 'he' at the end wasn't the topic of our discussion.

Why's that supposed to matter?

God brings His Word to us in our language. We don't have to learn another language to know God's Truth.

So, John did not write his Gospel in Greek?
 

7djengo7

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He had no problem saying "I am the resurrection" and I am the light of the world" etc.

Obviously, then, Jesus would have had no problem saying "I am he", or "I am Jesus", or "I am Jesus of Nazareth", in John 18:5, had he meant to do so. But, just like He did not say, "I am the resurrection", or "I am the light of the world", in John 18:5, He also did not say "I am he", or "I am Jesus", or "I am Jesus of Nazareth", in John 18:5. Rather, He said, "I am".
 
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