ECT Yet Future?

Interplanner

Well-known member
Since you cannot even begin to understand that the book to the HEBREWS is written to the HEBREWS, it is impossible to communication with you. That's why.

Heb 9:28 (AKJV/PCE)
(9:28) So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.

Notice that the UNTO salvation comes at His appearing the SECOND TIME.




Which you think proves a restored Israel, but it does not. You would need to show it otherwise. It is salvation as he has been speaking all along in the book, a skill called 'using context.' That meaning is 'to be made perfect' which is to have sin's debt solved. It further means the NHNE with the city of the new Jerusalem, which has been defined elsewhere, and which already exists teeming with believers who had already died.

Stop speaking like you are the only one who knows anything and you may get communication.
 

Ktoyou

Well-known member
Hall of Fame
For the same reason time is described as threescore and two weeks, instead of seventy two, and another as fullness of time - that was how time was described back then.

Basic History 101.

You should have Googled it
 

Right Divider

Body part
Which you think proves a restored Israel, but it does not. You would need to show it otherwise. It is salvation as he has been speaking all along in the book, a skill called 'using context.' That meaning is 'to be made perfect' which is to have sin's debt solved.
Paul said that the sin debt has already been taken care of. Why would the writer of Hebrews speak of a future salvation at the second coming?

It further means the NHNE with the city of the new Jerusalem, which has been defined elsewhere, and which already exists teeming with believers who had already died.
More scripture-less commentary.

Stop speaking like you are the only one who knows anything and you may get communication.
Oh you continue to be a lot of fun with your constant irony.
 

Right Divider

Body part
For the same reason time is described as threescore and two weeks, instead of seventy two, and another as fullness of time - that was how time was described back then.

Basic History 101.
Please expound upon this for us.

Show us how 70 was commonly described as 7 and 62 and 1 in the past or at any time.
 

Danoh

New member
Please expound upon this for us.

Show us how 70 was commonly described as 7 and 62 and 1 in the past or at any time.

You've taken my comment too literally.

I was not referring to that but to how time was often described back then..

In measures that differ in description from the measures we use to describe time today.

Case in point - fullness of time.

Due to that time back then when the passing of time was measured by how long a measure of sand took to fill full a container.

At other times, the passing of time was counted in divisions as when one divides up portions of varying amounts on an abacus.

Case in point; the First Nations of this country would have never said "walk a mile in another's moccasins."

As dividing the passing of length of time into miles was foreign to them.

Instead, they divided time by fullness of a moon and or season, and so on.

Nothing new there - "it is not for you to know the times, or the seasons the Father hath put in His own power."

Or as in "Then returned they unto Jerusalem from the mount called Olivet, which is from Jerusalem a sabbath day's journey."

The Lord used a lot of those kinds of colloquialism as divisions of one thing or another - like counting the cost, or adding a cubit, and such.

The things described in Scripture are so old that some "measure of time" invested in their history is worth "the time."

Though, secular history in such things is much more preferable to time in the bias of theologians of one school or another.

Again, you took my point too literally.

Just as some take Romans 1:11's "established" too literally.

Which only happens absent of lots of questions of many passages in a word study; etymology or history of a word and its variations and so on.

Because, beyond the much simpler doctrine "Christ died for our sins" much of the other involves a great many details.

As in 2 Thess. 2:3's "a falling away" which is actually defined all the way back in Daniel, et al (or together with other witnesses).

And again, in light of various, indeptj word studies in Greek, Hebrew, and in the Word's overall narrative, and history.

Stam had much of all that. O'Hair had much of all that. Baker had much of all that. Jordan has all that, and others like them.

Anyway...

Genesis 25:7 And these are the days of the years of Abraham's life which he lived, an hundred threescore and fifteen years.
 

Right Divider

Body part
You've taken my comment too literally.

I was not referring to that but to how time was often described back then..

In measures that differ in description from the measures we use to describe time today.
STP's question was about something specific and yet you went way off on a tangent.
 

serpentdove

BANNED
Banned
Some assert it is yet future...

...Romans 11:25 For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.
We're almost there. :jump: The Jews were blinded. What's your excuse? :smokie:

As a reminder Danoh is number 61 on Satan, Inc. (TOL Heretics list) in "The 'Jesus is not God' people (Non-trinitarians) category. :burnlib:
 
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SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
No, it's a fact.

STP was asking why PROPHECY breaks the 70 weeks for Israel into SPECIFIC regions of 7, 62 and 1.

You're pretty dense sometimes. This is one of those times.

Danoh feels bad for IP and respects his intellect. So, even though he disagrees with IP on the 70th week, he would rather side with him in this instance because they both despise "the club"?
 
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