What is the Gospel?

Evil.Eye.<(I)>

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What did it accomplish for those that don't get salvation?

Come on, EE, have the balls to nut up and answer.

I nailed your dishonest debate tactics and here they are again... you’ve been answered. I even answered your loaded question... earlier... and was misquoted in falsification...

People see what you are doing... and you are blowing it... you just don’t see it...

What exactly did Christ's death do for those that do not get salvation????????
Can you substantiate your own argument or not?

Me? No.

But Jesus and scripture do...

1 John 2:2

1 Timothy 4:10

John 12:32

Matthew 18:11 ... (not just dispensational... but a character of Jesus scripture... winkey face)

1 Timothy 2:4

Okay...

Short answer...

Jesus Death Saved all mankind from the clutches of Spiritual blindness and the “inescapable” condemnation of the “first physical death”. More specifically, John 12:32 shows that God can communicate with and “draw” “ALL” men to Himself, because Jesus Died for “ALL Men”, as 1 John 2:2 states... 1 Timothy 4:10, as well. I also recognize mankind’s free will to reject Christ’s Drawing Gesture of “Scandalous Love” towards all sinners.

To answer your “loaded” question in its’ false and originally intended expression, that refers to eternal life with Christ...

Long Answer...

Earlier... I stated that Universalism and Limited Atonement both arrogantly claim to know the will of God.

For that matter... all conclusions about final judgment are attempts to speak for God as scripture says something very important I never deviate from...

Isaiah 46:10 Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure

I get tired of people passing Salvic judgment on others and thus... I give all Glory to Jesus (The Word of God)... and recognize He has the final say... and thus... I exalt God far above even scriptural disputes in such matters and say...

“He can do whatever the Hell He wants... because He’s God”...

I do believe we had this conversation as I introduced a sock called “James Dalton” because I was sick of debating without rebuttal... so I went on as a noob and discussed this very thing with “whosoever” would bite...

And lookey here...

Deja Vu Link

And what? I still say God Alone knows the answer to your question...

He alone has final Salvic say...

He's just like God's UNtruth.

He demands answers but will give none of his own.

It's a god complex.

What exactly did Christ's death do for those that do not get salvation????????

Me...

Jesus died for all


Tambora and Glorydaz... Did Jesus die for all?

Response...

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Tam and Glory’s Debate tactics...

1) Forget 1 Timothy 4:10
2) Conflate human response to Jesus with Jesus’ response to humanity
3) Sophistry and high fives
4) Claim Disunity being sewn when they are seen for their false debate tactics...
5) Be recalcitrant and place blame for their sophistry on the individual in whom’s words they are twisting at the moment.
6) Act like the old muppet guys in the balcony, even though their point is based on false assertion and a refusal to answer via scripture... with honesty.

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7) Recieve Scriptural rebuttal and pretend they didn’t while asking a question over and over that has been clearly answered while they STILL REFUSE TO ANSWER IF JESUS DIED FOR ALL!

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My final response to both of them... on their refusal to admit Jesus died for all...

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Every post of theirs that follows this post of mine from them in response to being busted and exposed...

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Nihilo

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What exactly did Christ's death do for those that do not get salvation????????
That's a good question, and whatever is the answer, will explain 1st Timothy 4:10 (KJV), and why He is the Savior of anybody other than His Church, the Elect, the Body of Christ; believers. At least in some sense, He is NOT the Savior of unbelievers. Whatever way that is, is precisely NOT what 1st Timothy 4:10 (KJV) means, in saying He is the Savior of all.
 

Danoh

New member
This is the second time you have said this.
Here is the other place.



This is based on a false premise.
Refusal is not based on giving. It is based on offering.
A gift is only a gift when it is accepted as such and received.
It can be purchased as a potential gift based on offering and acceptance.
But it requires both parties to participate.
Until it is accepted it is still just your personal property, regardless of your intentions.

If the government passes a law to give a rebate of $50 to every taxpayer and some never apply for it or accept it, it is not a rebate. It is still only a potential benefit.

We colloquially use the word "gift" assuming the second part of the contract will follow. But if it doesn't, for some reason, it is ineffectual and no longer a gift.

For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ. Rom 5:17KJV


In the case of the unbeliever, the blood gift has not been received and has, therefore, not been applied. There are none who, having been offered the free gift of Jesus' blood as a sacrifice for sin, and having rejected the offer, are in possession of the gift. It has been offered but not given. This is one of the limiting factors of the doctrine of limited atonement.

Yep, kind of - even The so called Buddha got that right about that principle.

Or as he had supposedly put it "if someone offers you a gift and you refuse it; who's gift does it remain?"

Although, in his lost, atheist case, he supposedly had said that during his advising of someone who had asked him how he might handle being insulted by someone; the principle is nevertheless the same.

Or as the Apostle Paul might have said of that "This witness (this point or observation) is true" Titus 1:13.

1 Thessalonians 2:13 For this cause also thank we God without ceasing, because, when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe.

Romans 5:7, 8.
 

Tambora

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I nailed your dishonest debate tactics and here they are again... you’ve been answered. I even answered your loaded question... earlier... and was misquoted in falsification...
There is nothing in that hodgepodge that says what Christ's death did for those that do not get salvation.

But you are welcome to respond with another cluster of gifs if you think that helps.
 

Evil.Eye.<(I)>

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There is nothing in that hodgepodge that says what Christ's death did for those that do not get salvation.

But you are welcome to respond with another cluster of gifs if you think that helps.

I even emboldened it and put it in red.

You lie.

You are officially a Liar.
 

Evil.Eye.<(I)>

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BINGO!
Maybe EE will catch on and can provide an answer next time someone asks.

You lie. Did Jesus die for all?

Any answer besides yes is TULIP based... So... no...

And I stated over and over “saved from the clutches of the first physical death”...

It’s all there and Thread history doesn’t lie. :e4e:

Ahemmmm... you do...
 

Evil.Eye.<(I)>

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That's a good question, and whatever is the answer, will explain 1st Timothy 4:10 (KJV), and why He is the Savior of anybody other than His Church, the Elect, the Body of Christ; believers. At least in some sense, He is NOT the Savior of unbelievers. Whatever way that is, is precisely NOT what 1st Timothy 4:10 (KJV) means, in saying He is the Savior of all.

1 Timothy 4:10

Liar!
 

Derf

Well-known member
Our Lord plainly states, that His blood is poured out for “many,” not for “all” (Matt. 26:28). Many does not mean all. It is indisputable. Please reconcile this plain teaching with your odd claim that Our Lord died (shed His blood) for all, especially when Our Lord directly contradicts your assertion. What is your plain answer to His plain statement?

For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. [1Co 15:22 KJV]
Does "all" mean "all"? Does only one "all" mean "all", and the other "all" means "not all"? Maybe Paul misunderstood Matt 26:28. Or maybe it wasn't written yet, so he didn't have the full truth.

Fortunately Paul explains what "many" means, too:
But not as the offence, so also [is] the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, [which is] by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. [Rom 5:15 KJV]
For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous. [Rom 5:19 KJV]

Answer: Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: [Rom 5:12 KJV]

If death passed to "all" because of Adam's offence, but Paul then says "many be dead" through Adam's offence, does not Paul mean "all" when he says "many". And if Paul says "all will be made alive", but he only means "many", he sure seems to confuse the two terms.
 

Tambora

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For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. [1Co 15:22 KJV]
Does "all" mean "all"? Does only one "all" mean "all", and the other "all" means "not all"? Maybe Paul misunderstood Matt 26:28. Or maybe it wasn't written yet, so he didn't have the full truth.

Fortunately Paul explains what "many" means, too:
But not as the offence, so also [is] the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, [which is] by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. [Rom 5:15 KJV]
For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous. [Rom 5:19 KJV]

Answer: Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: [Rom 5:12 KJV]

If death passed to "all" because of Adam's offence, but Paul then says "many be dead" through Adam's offence, does not Paul mean "all" when he says "many". And if Paul says "all will be made alive", but he only means "many", he sure seems to confuse the two terms.
Hi Derf.
Good questions.

Do you see a difference in how Christ's death satisfied Adam's sin (singular) and how it satisfied each individual's sins (plural)?

Thanks.
 
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glorydaz

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At this point... I place more stock in @God’s Truth ‘s words than what you say.

My goodness, what will I ever do? :allsmile:


GT admits Jesus died for all... as scripture says... the obedience thing is her perspective and desire to serve God... but... at least she knows all means all...

You two have about the same understanding on many things, come to think of it. :think:


And, Yeah... I am simple... Jesus died for all and draws all. Not all respond with love or desire for what Jesus has done.

All are drawn by the preaching of the cross, and those who believe will be saved. Of course not all respond, nor are their sins forgiven, nor are they saved. So keep playing your little word games, quoting some verses and ignoring others. You won't be the first to do just that.

Being drawn is good, but it doesn't save. Not all are willing to be reconciled by His death....they remain enemies. You can't change that no matter how many tizzies you throw.

He can even speak to men that never have a Bible or know His name... and draw them unto salvation... because of Jesus’s DBR... and 1st Corinthians 13 Love...

Yeah, of course....through the preaching of the Word.

:idea: Maybe I should start a campaign, "mention" every poster I can think of to comment on that statement. Heck, I could even put up a bunch of silly memes, and add in a few cuss words to draw attention to this statement of yours.

I know, why don't you try growing up and quote some verses that show where this could happen.
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
[MENTION=13955]glorydaz[/MENTION] and [MENTION=3698]Tambora[/MENTION] agree with you... per their failure to answer if Jesus died for all as 1 John 2:2 and 1 Timothy 4:10 say.

I’m pretty sure [MENTION=16629]patrick jane[/MENTION] agrees too...

Since they don’t have the Balls to nut up and shut up the “Jesus didn’t die for all crowd”...

Congratulations on your Pharisees following. :e4e:

AMR is in his right mind, unlike you, and very knowledgeable about Scripture.

YOU, on the other hand are an Evil "wanna be" Christian who obviously can't help but show your big fat rear end every time you come on to post. You're disgusting.
 

Evil.Eye.<(I)>

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Sophistry exposed...

The Lie...

“Jesus didn’t die for all”

The Truth...

Matthew 27:51 And behold, the curtain of the temple was torn in two, from top to bottom. And the earth shook, and the rocks were split.

He died for ALL and gave access to ALL!

He died for ALL Sins! ALL Sins of Every Man that was, is and will be... 1 John 2:2

If He hadn’t... done so... ALL men wouldn’t have Access!

He is the “Savior of all”... 1 Timothy 4:10

“Especially to those that believe”... which means He died for even those that reject Him in full...

To conflate God’s provision to all men with mankind’s response to God’s provision is a deceptive reduction of the scope of all scripture that declares HIM the Lover of all Souls and the Savior of All!

1 Timothy 4:10 !!!

Not just Believers... but ALL Men!!!

People who blasted myself and BBK for exalting the Holy Spirit of Jesus over scripture are taking a dump all over 1 Timothy 4:10 ‘s literal verbiage!

I’m literally watching Calvinism clutch ToL as surely as AMR PM’s all active newbies to learn Calvinism from him!
 
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