toldailytopic: WWJD. Jesus was Jewish, so why wouldn't He want all of us to become Je
- Thread starter Nathon Detroit
- Start date
Romans 2:28, 29
For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
Colossians 2:11
In Him you were also circumcised with a circumcision made without hands, in the removal of the body of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ.
Galatians 6:15
For neither is circumcision [of the flesh] anything, nor uncircumcision, but a new creation.
Philippians 3:3
For we are the true circumcision, who worship in the Spirit of God and glory in Christ Jesus and put no confidence in the flesh.
For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
Colossians 2:11
In Him you were also circumcised with a circumcision made without hands, in the removal of the body of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ.
Galatians 6:15
For neither is circumcision [of the flesh] anything, nor uncircumcision, but a new creation.
Philippians 3:3
For we are the true circumcision, who worship in the Spirit of God and glory in Christ Jesus and put no confidence in the flesh.
OMEGA
New member
Finally, a Catholic who reads his Bible.
Mt 27:37 And set up over his head written, THIS IS JESUS THE KING OF THE JEWS.
Mt 2:2 Saying, Where is he that is born King of the Jews?
for we have seen his star in the east, and are come to worship him.
Romans 2:28, 29
For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
Philippians 3:3
For we are the true circumcision, who worship in the Spirit of God and glory in Christ Jesus and put no confidence in the flesh.
:thumb::sheep::rapture:
Mt 27:37 And set up over his head written, THIS IS JESUS THE KING OF THE JEWS.
Mt 2:2 Saying, Where is he that is born King of the Jews?
for we have seen his star in the east, and are come to worship him.
Romans 2:28, 29
For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
Philippians 3:3
For we are the true circumcision, who worship in the Spirit of God and glory in Christ Jesus and put no confidence in the flesh.
:thumb::sheep::rapture:
Charity
New member
Do You think they printed words 1,400 years latter; like... Jesus wanted people to drink his blood for not so good reasons...
A jewish blood transfusion wont allow any one citizinship to isreal will it? LET A LONE the primitive land claims to God's inheritance?
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Sheila B
Member
And the Kingdom of which He is Sovereign is an eternal House: the House of Jacob. Luke 1:32 and 33
genuineoriginal
New member
The Jews were only two of the 12 tribes of the children of Israel, the tribe of Judah and the tribe of Benjamin, plus some of the uncounted tribe of Levi. Jesus was of the tribe of Judah.
The Jews were captured by Babylon for 70 years because of unrepentance, then when they returned they were given another 490 years to repent. When Jesus began his ministry there was only 7 years left of that time and the Jews showed no sign of repentance, so land of Israel was going to become desolate as a result and the Jews were going to enter Great Tribulation.
Jesus did not want us to become Jews and suffer in the Great Tribulation that began with Jerusalem being surrounded by Roman armies.
Jesus wanted us to make the children of Israel jealous as it was written (Deuteronomy 32:21), and we could not do that if we became Jews.
Ted L Glines
New member
From what little we know (history of the time of Jesus), we see Jesus fighting against corruption which reigned in the Temple, doing what he could to bring the Jewish priests back to a fundamental worship of God. If Jesus craved to found a new religion, He would not have wanted to create a copy of the corruption he perceived in Judaeism.
Best answer so far. The continuation of that theme is found in,
The Remnant of Israel and The Ingrafted Branches.
Romans 11: 1-36
I, too, believe that Jesus is GOD manifest in the flesh, and..... that Jesus carried humanity right up into the heavenlies through the unity of His person.
Gal 3:28 is constantly being used to say that there is no longer any distinctions among believers, however Paul was not speaking of the end of diversity, but that one believer does not 'rank' higher than another based on one's ethnic, social, or gender status.
He was basically telling the Galatian Gentiles that circumcised Jews had no superior rank above them. At that time many believing Jews considered themselves superior to Gentiles because they were of the literal bloodline and covenant of Abraham. Likewise, males were deemed superior over women and masters were superior over slaves. The cross is the great equalizer. (cf. Col 3:11)
But...look around. GOD obviously likes diversity.
Now, you've got to admit that, 'Cookie Cutter', identical stamped out Christians, all repeating the same cliches, are annoying.
There is much that is wrong in Messianic Judaism and many within the movement have gone to extremes. Indeed, the integration of 'the Law of Moses' by obligation, with Church practices is in error. However, understanding and memorializing the 'appointed times for Israel' for continuity is not. I agree that it does add complexity when it is imposed and many are doing that, but on the other hand there are those who 'freely' take an interest in these things and they should not be deprived the liberty of doing so. And....if a Jew, who comes to Christ, desires to preserve his ethnicity and history, family relationships(if even possible at that point), etc., there should be the freedom to do so. The Jews in Acts 15, did not demand that Gentiles become Jews. What right do Gentile Christians have to demand that Jews become Gentiles. Oh...I know, it is said ,"We're not insisting that they become Gentiles, we're insisting that they become Christians". That's just another way of demanding that Jews forsake any vestige of Jewishness and adopt the Gentilized Christianity of the last nearly two-thousand years, along with all its distinctly Gentile culture.
To adopt the Mosaic Law as binding on believers, indeed, would demean the work of the cross, but not all Messianics are doing that.
If I may also add, the Jews spoke Greek as their primary language [historical evidence], which is why the NT was written in Greek. They also spoke Hebrew and Aramaic - also shown within the NT. So we know that Jesus was called "Iesous" [transliterated from the Hebrew] - the Greeks could not pronounce "Yeshua" [His Hebrew Name]. We can see by internal evidence that Jesus was called Iesous. But that is another topic for another day
I agree to some extent, however:
The angel that spoke to Mary said to call His name Yeshoshua/Yeshua, for He will save His people from their sins.
The use of the Hebrew is more meaningful since it means 'the salvation of Jehovah'. Through the use of the Greek/English transliteration many have lost this concept. This is one instance where returning to the Jewishness is of value for understanding.
When the angels stated that Jesus was going to return as He left, they were not referring to His ethnicity, but that He would return to the Mt of Olives on the clouds of Glory as the Lord of all
Right, they were not emphasizing His ethnicity, however it is contained in the phrase 'this same Yeshus/Jesus', much like Deut 6:4 does not emphasize YHVH's diversity, but it is contained in the word 'echad'.
If you believe(which I do) that Jesus will literally return to the Mt of Olives, do you also believe that He will at that time sit on His glorious throne? (Mat 25:31) And who's throne will He be taking at that time?
Is it not the Davidic throne, Jewish?
You can probably already tell, that I don't go in for what I consider 'excessive' allegorization, though scripture does contain allegory and symbolism.
I believe we will retain a knowing continuity with our past history, which in my case, is Gentile origin.
I have great confidence that GOD has worked out the details of how persons enter the New Jerusalem.
As far as ethnic roots are concerned, Jesus promised the Apostles that in the 'palingenesia'/restoration, that they would sit on twelve thrones, and rule as judges over the twelve tribes of Israel.
Some may shove that in the 'Allegorical drawer', but I take it literally.
Rev 1:12 And I turned to see the voice that spake with me. And being turned, I saw seven golden candlesticks;
Rev 1:13 And in the midst of the seven candlesticks one like unto the Son of man, clothed with a garment down to the foot, and girt about the paps with a golden girdle.
Rev 1:14 His head and his hairs were white like wool, as white as snow; and his eyes were as a flame of fire;
Rev 1:15 And his feet like unto fine brass, as if they burned in a furnace; and his voice as the sound of many waters.
Rev 1:16 And he had in his right hand seven stars: and out of his mouth went a sharp twoedged sword: and his countenance was as the sun shineth in his strength.[/QUOTE]
These scriptures are obviously in harmony with what is described in Daniel concerning 'the Ancient of Days', which goes right back to the Jewish roots and continuity of the whole 'saga' of GOD's redemption for mankind.
Also, it seems to me that this is a 'visionary' experience that John is having, with as you might say, 'allegory' or 'symbolism' included, similar to Rev 5, where there is a 'Lamb as slain in the midst of the throne', representing Jesus. Rev 1:16 speaks of a 'sharp twoedged sword' coming out of His mouth. I take that as symbolism.
The bottom line for me is this. I believe that Jesus died and arose the third day in the same body that died on the cross. Forty days later that same body ascended into heaven(a geographical location within the created universe), and that body, though glorified and elevated beyond what it was on earth, is nevetheless the same body with continuity. Jesus, in that same glorified body, will return someday as rightful heir of the Davidic throne in Jerusalem, and will rule over a saved National Israel, from where His dominion will extend to the uttermost parts of the earth.
One day my body will be raised either from its present living state or from corruption in the grave. My new glorified body will possess a continuity with the body that I now have. Jesus' body was not anihilated in the grave and then given a completely different one. It was the same one, with different qualities. Phil 3:21 promises us the same thing. So does Ro 8:23.
Jesus came to redeem all that was lost.
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oatmeal
Well-known member
Sheila B
Member
Does a change in the Law mean "no longer a Jew"? Does a "change in the Priesthood" mean no longer an Israelite?
"The" Law and "The" Priesthood say it all: there is only "ONE" and it had a fuller meaning and purpose, not an end. The animals and bread and wine only pointed to the True Body, the True sacrifice that will be offered until the Second Coming.
Hebrews 10
"The" Law and "The" Priesthood say it all: there is only "ONE" and it had a fuller meaning and purpose, not an end. The animals and bread and wine only pointed to the True Body, the True sacrifice that will be offered until the Second Coming.
Hebrews 10
Knight,
I have some pondering to share.
Before the foundation of the world God determined that he as the Messiah would be the savior of the world. Isaiah 43:11 KJV
God began to reveal pieces of his huge plan unto Adam and Woman from the start. From then on he selected specific people, whom he would allow to come near him, and used them to represent him among men on earth.
Yet, the time came when he chose a nation ... and a SPECIAL covenant relationship was established. God was to use them from generation to generation. While individual men came and died... a nation would be preserved for his purposes; therefore, God always preserved a remnant of Israel until we have the Jews of today.
God does not want or need all people to be Jews ... he has what he needs. He produced the Messiah through them and he will ultimately work wonders among them in order to reveal himself to the world.
It has been God's plan to save all of (willing) humanity from the start ... but he chose one single nation for his work. Being a chosen nation actually carried with it blessings and curses and seems to have caused other nations to be jealous and cruel to them ... so I'm not so sure all humanity would want to join that club... nor that God would want it that way.
Yet, now that there is a new covenant ... God is in the process of joining / grafting his family of saved gentiles / Christians ... and his family of covenant people together as his one eternal family... no Jew no Gentile ... just children of God.
I don't think God is through using Israel / the Jews; so, for the time being God will preserve their identity so that he can work wonders among them in the eyes of all nations.
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Gal 3:28 is often used to say that there is no longer any diversity in Christ. It is typically used to single out Jewishness as no longer existent, being totally oblivious to the fact that Christianty since the second century has become a totally gentile culture. So, the verse is used to eliminate Jewishness but not to eliminate Gentileness.
The idea that there are no longer any distinctions or categories among believers in Christ, is not what Paul is talking about here.
The context of Gal 3 is that the bellieving Gentiles of Galatia have been seduced by the Judaizers to believe that they of the law of Moses, are superior to them and in order for the gentiles to measure up, they must be circumcised and keep the laws of Moses. Throughout the book of Galatians, Paul is contrasting 'works of law'/legalism versus faith alone.
Gal 3:2 Let me ask you only this: Did you receive the Spirit by works of the law or by hearing with faith?
Gal 3:3 Are you so foolish? Having begun by the Spirit, are you now being perfected by the flesh?
Gal 3:8 And the Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, "In you shall all the nations be blessed."
Gal 3:9 So then, those who are of faith are blessed along with Abraham, the man of faith
He is simply saying that in Christ, there is no rank of superiority. We are all accepted and equal by faith alone in Christ. To see the absurdity of using this verse to say that there is no longer any Jewishness, then one could ask the question, "Are you still a male, now that you are in Christ? Is your wife still a female, now that she is in Christ? Are there any Christians anywhere in the world, who are enslaved? Have you really dropped all of your 'gentileness'? If so, what are the non-gentile traits that you now have? Is there some sort of cultural behavior that is between Jewishness and Gentileness? Have we suddenly become 'gender-neutral', as being no longer male or female?
Gal 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is no male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus.
Paul's point is this:
Gal 3:29 And if you are Christ's, then you are Abraham's offspring, heirs according to promise.
and it is by faith alone, whether you are Jew or Gentile, slave or free, male or female......and that there is no superiority, one over the other, in Christ.
To say that we cease being what we are as males or females is to slip into denial of the present reality. To say that we do retain distinctions, does not demean Christ or His work on the cross.
If that is the case, then why does the Apostle Paul refer to 'churches of the gentiles'? He maybe should have said just 'churches', with no mention of 'gentiles'. Or maybe he should have said 'churches of the non-cultural, non-ethnic 'something or 'nothers'.
Rom 16:4 Who have for my life laid down their own necks: unto whom not only I give thanks, but also all the churches of the Gentiles.
Hello Steko and others:
quote Steko:
That's the way I understand things as well.
When we consider the Jewish and / or Israel ... we owe them respect in these ways:
They became God's chosen.
They have endure much from men due to their relationship with the LORD and for his purposes.
They are no more perfect than any other men ... except that they entered into a divine covenant and have learned over time just how serious that was.
It is as though God planned to sacrifice himself for men ... but he also sought out a nation that would sacrifice themselves among men for his name sake.
Not only was the LORD God going to use them to reveal Himself unto the nations, but He had in mind that they would perform the job of literally offering up the divine sacrifice of salvation when He came.
But, it seems that when it comes to eternal salvation, God does not force himself upon any men - whether they be Jew or Gentile. There are many Jews who have understood the scriptures and have discovered the truth of the identity of the Messiah Jesus as there have been Gentiles, who have found him
BUT, still remaining among the entire lot of Jews and Gentiles there are many, who have been equally blind.
quote Steko:
That's the way I understand things as well.
When we consider the Jewish and / or Israel ... we owe them respect in these ways:
They became God's chosen.
They have endure much from men due to their relationship with the LORD and for his purposes.
They are no more perfect than any other men ... except that they entered into a divine covenant and have learned over time just how serious that was.
It is as though God planned to sacrifice himself for men ... but he also sought out a nation that would sacrifice themselves among men for his name sake.
Not only was the LORD God going to use them to reveal Himself unto the nations, but He had in mind that they would perform the job of literally offering up the divine sacrifice of salvation when He came.
But, it seems that when it comes to eternal salvation, God does not force himself upon any men - whether they be Jew or Gentile. There are many Jews who have understood the scriptures and have discovered the truth of the identity of the Messiah Jesus as there have been Gentiles, who have found him
BUT, still remaining among the entire lot of Jews and Gentiles there are many, who have been equally blind.
elected4ever
New member
Some of the stuff written here is really funny. The question I have is why does any of us wont to be anything other than what we are?
Laying aside the argument about weather Jesus is God or not or if we are now a sect of the Judaism, lets look at some fundamentals.
1. Jesus was born of God and not of man. Jesus' father is God Himself and not a man. Sense Jesus was not born a Jew from His Father's side but was born of promise. Jesus is the fulfillment of God's promise to the Jews. Jesus is the Only begotten Son of God in the flesh.
2. Jesus was born into the the tribe of Judah of the Nation of Israel, of the house of David from the linage of a son of David that could not reign on the throne of David by order of God the Father in the physical sense.
3. Allegorically speaking, Jesus was born into a world of bondage. Bondage to the law and to the fallen nature of man. As a man born of Hagar (Mary), the woman of bondage, Jesus could not inherit the Kingdom of God while in the flesh just as no man can inherit the kingdom of God or establish the relationship man had with God before the fall of Adam while in the flesh but must first die physically. This is also by command of God.
4. Jesus had to die for two reasons. First, to receive His inheritance and second, to pay the sin debt for all mankind so that they too may inherit the kindom of God.
5. At the death of Jesus on the cross the bondage of sin was broken for us because Jesus did not die for Himself. Jesus could not die for Himself because He had no sin. "He who had no sin became sin for us that we may (have opportunity)to become children of God". He became sin for us that we may become children of promise as He is and that we should also receive our inheritance.
6. The Father resurrected the body of Jesus in a new and gloriefied form. Discarding the robe of flesh that prevented His receiveing His inheratance. The same kind of body that we shell receive at our resurrection. "We shell be like Him (Jesus) for we shell see Him as He is".
I leave you with this final though. Although our approach differs as to the practice of our Christian faith while we are on earth the words of Jesus remain true and it matters little as to how we practice our faith. We will all gravitate to the form of practice that suits us but theses words never change for any of us.
John 3:5 *Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
6 *That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
7 *Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again.
8 *The wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit.
Laying aside the argument about weather Jesus is God or not or if we are now a sect of the Judaism, lets look at some fundamentals.
1. Jesus was born of God and not of man. Jesus' father is God Himself and not a man. Sense Jesus was not born a Jew from His Father's side but was born of promise. Jesus is the fulfillment of God's promise to the Jews. Jesus is the Only begotten Son of God in the flesh.
2. Jesus was born into the the tribe of Judah of the Nation of Israel, of the house of David from the linage of a son of David that could not reign on the throne of David by order of God the Father in the physical sense.
3. Allegorically speaking, Jesus was born into a world of bondage. Bondage to the law and to the fallen nature of man. As a man born of Hagar (Mary), the woman of bondage, Jesus could not inherit the Kingdom of God while in the flesh just as no man can inherit the kingdom of God or establish the relationship man had with God before the fall of Adam while in the flesh but must first die physically. This is also by command of God.
4. Jesus had to die for two reasons. First, to receive His inheritance and second, to pay the sin debt for all mankind so that they too may inherit the kindom of God.
5. At the death of Jesus on the cross the bondage of sin was broken for us because Jesus did not die for Himself. Jesus could not die for Himself because He had no sin. "He who had no sin became sin for us that we may (have opportunity)to become children of God". He became sin for us that we may become children of promise as He is and that we should also receive our inheritance.
6. The Father resurrected the body of Jesus in a new and gloriefied form. Discarding the robe of flesh that prevented His receiveing His inheratance. The same kind of body that we shell receive at our resurrection. "We shell be like Him (Jesus) for we shell see Him as He is".
I leave you with this final though. Although our approach differs as to the practice of our Christian faith while we are on earth the words of Jesus remain true and it matters little as to how we practice our faith. We will all gravitate to the form of practice that suits us but theses words never change for any of us.
John 3:5 *Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
6 *That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
7 *Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again.
8 *The wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit.
Hi elected4ever,
What a great post you wrote above! Enjoyed reading it and found nothing with which I disagree.
I would like to make a comment on #6 because it stirred my thoughts.
God actually raised the dead body of our Lord and put is on again as one would put on an old garment. Remember, that he told Mary to not touch his body, because he had not yet risen to the Father.
That physical body that had died and was raised was taken into the heavenly realm. I believe that Revelation describes the presentation of that slain body and symbolically refers to it as the lamb destined to be slain before the world began.
God literally did take on our sins ... by putting on the mortal fleshly bodily garment of humanity. He really was tempted in every way, suffered and tasted death through that body, and was raised to life again - all before he received his glorification.
Is it any wonder that our LORD Jesus was called God, the son of God, and a son of man?
If you are interested in knowing an interesting detail about the body Christ Jesus received at his glorification read this portion of his recorded prayer:
John 17:4,5 KJV (Jesus prayed before his disciples)
I have glorified YOU (Father) on the earth: I have finished the work which YOU gave me to do.
Now, O Father, glorify YOU me with YOUR own self with the glory which I had (shared) with YOU before the world was."
I added the word 'shared' of course ... but I do believe that scripture makes a good case for this truth.
In the OT, whenever anyone saw the presence of God the Father they had also seen the presence of God the Risen Son... just like Jesus said in the NT: When you have SEEN ME ... you have SEEN the FATHER.
The Father's presence was and still is glorified ... a heavenly body.
Exodus 24:10 KJV And they SAW the God of Israel (the LORD) and there was under HIS feet as it were a paved work of a sapphire stone, and as it were the body of heaven in HIS clearness.
... while the Son's presence was of flesh. No one had ever seen God the Son in flesh before his time came to be manifested ... Yet, God the Son most certainly favored the very image of God the Father ... even though the form was not glorified.
John 1:18 KJV
No man at any time hath seen God, the only begotten son (who is in the bosom of the Father); he (John the Baptist) hath declared him (unto us.)
John 2:7,8, 9 KJV (The truth of John's word when he was declaring the identity of the divine Lord Jesus)
The same (John the Baptist) came for a witness, to bear witness of The LIGHT, that all men through him (John) might believe,
He (John the B) was not the LIGHT, but was sent to bear witness of THAT LIGHT,
THAT was the TRUE LIGHT, which lighteth every man that cometh in to the world.
He (THAT TRUE LIGHT)was in the world, and the world was made by HIM, and the world knew HIM not.
There was a reason for God to share his IMAGE with Adam #1 and lastly with Adam #2 (Our Lord Jesus)... manifesting them both of matching flesh!
Lord Jesus was the perfect match to render the WAY for our salvation ... both our spiritual essence and our physical essence.
Praise God ... our Creator and Savior for his plan for man.
Isaiah 43:11 KJV
I (God), even I, am the LORD (who appeared unto Israel), and besides ME there is no Savior.
Now, our Lord Jesus sits beside his Father LORD God and has received that same glorification that he once shared with the Father before the world was.
Two LORDs enthroned ... while being the ONE God. The WORD having been manifested out of the Father as the Son so that they no longer share the IMAGE of God as ONE, but now appear as TWO glorified LORDs.
What a great post you wrote above! Enjoyed reading it and found nothing with which I disagree.
I would like to make a comment on #6 because it stirred my thoughts.
God actually raised the dead body of our Lord and put is on again as one would put on an old garment. Remember, that he told Mary to not touch his body, because he had not yet risen to the Father.
That physical body that had died and was raised was taken into the heavenly realm. I believe that Revelation describes the presentation of that slain body and symbolically refers to it as the lamb destined to be slain before the world began.
God literally did take on our sins ... by putting on the mortal fleshly bodily garment of humanity. He really was tempted in every way, suffered and tasted death through that body, and was raised to life again - all before he received his glorification.
Is it any wonder that our LORD Jesus was called God, the son of God, and a son of man?
If you are interested in knowing an interesting detail about the body Christ Jesus received at his glorification read this portion of his recorded prayer:
John 17:4,5 KJV (Jesus prayed before his disciples)
I have glorified YOU (Father) on the earth: I have finished the work which YOU gave me to do.
Now, O Father, glorify YOU me with YOUR own self with the glory which I had (shared) with YOU before the world was."
I added the word 'shared' of course ... but I do believe that scripture makes a good case for this truth.
In the OT, whenever anyone saw the presence of God the Father they had also seen the presence of God the Risen Son... just like Jesus said in the NT: When you have SEEN ME ... you have SEEN the FATHER.
The Father's presence was and still is glorified ... a heavenly body.
Exodus 24:10 KJV And they SAW the God of Israel (the LORD) and there was under HIS feet as it were a paved work of a sapphire stone, and as it were the body of heaven in HIS clearness.
... while the Son's presence was of flesh. No one had ever seen God the Son in flesh before his time came to be manifested ... Yet, God the Son most certainly favored the very image of God the Father ... even though the form was not glorified.
John 1:18 KJV
No man at any time hath seen God, the only begotten son (who is in the bosom of the Father); he (John the Baptist) hath declared him (unto us.)
John 2:7,8, 9 KJV (The truth of John's word when he was declaring the identity of the divine Lord Jesus)
The same (John the Baptist) came for a witness, to bear witness of The LIGHT, that all men through him (John) might believe,
He (John the B) was not the LIGHT, but was sent to bear witness of THAT LIGHT,
THAT was the TRUE LIGHT, which lighteth every man that cometh in to the world.
He (THAT TRUE LIGHT)was in the world, and the world was made by HIM, and the world knew HIM not.
There was a reason for God to share his IMAGE with Adam #1 and lastly with Adam #2 (Our Lord Jesus)... manifesting them both of matching flesh!
Lord Jesus was the perfect match to render the WAY for our salvation ... both our spiritual essence and our physical essence.
Praise God ... our Creator and Savior for his plan for man.
Isaiah 43:11 KJV
I (God), even I, am the LORD (who appeared unto Israel), and besides ME there is no Savior.
Now, our Lord Jesus sits beside his Father LORD God and has received that same glorification that he once shared with the Father before the world was.
Two LORDs enthroned ... while being the ONE God. The WORD having been manifested out of the Father as the Son so that they no longer share the IMAGE of God as ONE, but now appear as TWO glorified LORDs.
I mostly agree with your post, except for these two points:
GOD bypassed the curse which He had placed on the seed of Jeconiah, by having Jesus born of Mary of the lineage of David through his son Nathan.
Jesus is the 'physical' heir to the literal throne of David by Joseph becoming His 'legal' parent. If Jesus had been the literal seed of Joseph then He could not be heir to the throne, because of the curse on Joseph's ancestor, Jeconiah.
GOD announces the promise that He would raise up unto David, who would rule over Israel and Judah, immediately after He spoke the curse on the seed of Jeconiah.
Jesus' body that died on the cross and was buried, was not 'discarded'. The same body that died, is the same body which was resurrected(anatasia-stood up) on the third day. Jesus' body was not anihilated and a new body created. His human body was brought back to life and given new qualities from heaven, thus rendering it 'glorified'. We are promised the same resurrection from death.
GOD bypassed the curse which He had placed on the seed of Jeconiah, by having Jesus born of Mary of the lineage of David through his son Nathan.
Jesus is the 'physical' heir to the literal throne of David by Joseph becoming His 'legal' parent. If Jesus had been the literal seed of Joseph then He could not be heir to the throne, because of the curse on Joseph's ancestor, Jeconiah.
GOD announces the promise that He would raise up unto David, who would rule over Israel and Judah, immediately after He spoke the curse on the seed of Jeconiah.
Jesus' body that died on the cross and was buried, was not 'discarded'. The same body that died, is the same body which was resurrected(anatasia-stood up) on the third day. Jesus' body was not anihilated and a new body created. His human body was brought back to life and given new qualities from heaven, thus rendering it 'glorified'. We are promised the same resurrection from death.
Hi Steko,
I did a genealogy study one time ... and I believe that Nathan, a son of David /of the kingdom of Judah ... was also a descendent of The Joseph/ of the kingdom of the ten tribe of Israel. Mary was related to Joseph and to Levi... and perhaps of Judah as well. I need to review that study. She covered all the bases for his being the descendant that fulfilled the types and shadows of the OT as the Favorite son, high priest, and king.
Interesting points being made, but I will be posting off and on today ... busy cleaning my kitchen and making purchases for up-coming entertaining.
I did a genealogy study one time ... and I believe that Nathan, a son of David /of the kingdom of Judah ... was also a descendent of The Joseph/ of the kingdom of the ten tribe of Israel. Mary was related to Joseph and to Levi... and perhaps of Judah as well. I need to review that study. She covered all the bases for his being the descendant that fulfilled the types and shadows of the OT as the Favorite son, high priest, and king.
Interesting points being made, but I will be posting off and on today ... busy cleaning my kitchen and making purchases for up-coming entertaining.
Was Mary really of the tribe of Levi? Since the Bible says Jesus was not...Hi, Ps82!
Interesting!
I'll look into that sometime.
Thanks!