The Trinity

The Trinity


  • Total voters
    121

popsthebuilder

New member
I'm a working man, and I don't always have time to respond to a post. Be patient.



The phrase does not exist in scripture, no. But just because a phrase is not in scripture does not mean that the concept or idea which the phrase describes is not in scripture.



Did Jesus exist before He was born?



Have you ever considered that Jesus is God the Son? Meaning there is one Person who is the Son, not two.



The author of that page must not know anything about Hebrew grammar.

The suffix "-im" indicates a plural noun. If it did not, then "cherubim," "seraphim," and "nephilim," would not be plural.

The author also apparently doesn't know any Greek either, or he would know that there is no Greek word for "Elohim," so the closest word was used, "theos," which without the "ho," just means "a god," or "gods" (lowercase 'g') (depending on the form of the word).

Yes, singular verbs are always used when Elohim, a plural masculine noun, is used. However, why would Moses, in the first book of the Bible, in the first chapter, the first verse, use a plural masculine noun to describe God if He is not a plurality? Why not use "El" or "Eloah"? Did Moses make a grammatical mistake? I doubt that.

As for Deuteronomy 6:4, the word "ehad" is used instead of "yahad" or "bad." "Ehad" means "one of plurality," whereas "yahad" and "bad" mean "one of singularity." The same word is used in Deuteronomy 6:4 as in Genesis 1:9, 2:24, 11:1, 11:6, 22:2, 32:8, 34:16, etc. When talking about God, neither "yahad" or "bad" is used, ever (as far as I'm aware). It's always "ehad."

"sema yisrael YHWH elohenu YHWH ehad"
The fact that GOD can manifest in whatever way GOD deems fit in no way takes away from the fact that there is only One GOD. Neither does an attribute or aspect of GOD, though limited by human perception, literally equate to the fullness thereof, or timelessness.
 

Lazy afternoon

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
I'm a working man, and I don't always have time to respond to a post. Be patient.



The phrase does not exist in scripture, no. But just because a phrase is not in scripture does not mean that the concept or idea which the phrase describes is not in scripture.



Did Jesus exist before He was born?



Have you ever considered that Jesus is God the Son? Meaning there is one Person who is the Son, not two.



The author of that page must not know anything about Hebrew grammar.

The suffix "-im" indicates a plural noun. If it did not, then "cherubim," "seraphim," and "nephilim," would not be plural.

The author also apparently doesn't know any Greek either, or he would know that there is no Greek word for "Elohim," so the closest word was used, "theos," which without the "ho," just means "a god," or "gods" (lowercase 'g') (depending on the form of the word).

Yes, singular verbs are always used when Elohim, a plural masculine noun, is used. However, why would Moses, in the first book of the Bible, in the first chapter, the first verse, use a plural masculine noun to describe God if He is not a plurality? Why not use "El" or "Eloah"? Did Moses make a grammatical mistake? I doubt that.

As for Deuteronomy 6:4, the word "ehad" is used instead of "yahad" or "bad." "Ehad" means "one of plurality," whereas "yahad" and "bad" mean "one of singularity." The same word is used in Deuteronomy 6:4 as in Genesis 1:9, 2:24, 11:1, 11:6, 22:2, 32:8, 34:16, etc. When talking about God, neither "yahad" or "bad" is used, ever (as far as I'm aware). It's always "ehad."

"sema yisrael YHWH elohenu YHWH ehad"

Go argue with Mr Buzzard, a professor of both Hebrew and Greek.

God called Moses Elohim, and he was not two persons either.

Explain the 5th trumpet and I will have regard to what you say.

http://focusonthekingdom.org/articles/elohim.htm
 

keypurr

Well-known member
Keypurr, unless you can show me in scripture where it says that the Holy Spirit "entered" Jesus, especially at His baptism, you have nothing to stand on but your own interpretation which you read into scripture.

how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power, who went about doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with Him. - Acts 10:38 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Acts10:38&version=NKJV

Ask yourself just what the power was that he got in Acts 10;38.

Did he not also receive the Holy Spirit?

Why would the son of God need a body to dwell in as told in Heb 10:5?

Jesus was not born as the Christ, he became the Christ when he was anointed with the logos.

Your blind JR, you can not see the trees because of the forest.
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
Keypurr, unless you can show me in scripture where it says that the Holy Spirit "entered" Jesus, especially at His baptism, you have nothing to stand on but your own interpretation which you read into scripture.

how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power, who went about doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with Him. - Acts 10:38 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Acts10:38&version=NKJV

Yep, and this is the text it's based upon. Proof Jesus of Nazareth was the Messiah...anointed for this very purpose.

Isaiah 61:1-3
1 The Spirit of the Lord God is upon me; because the Lord hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound; 2 To proclaim the acceptable year of the Lord, and the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn; 3 To appoint unto them that mourn in Zion, to give unto them beauty for ashes, the oil of joy for mourning, the garment of praise for the spirit of heaviness; that they might be called trees of righteousness, the planting of the Lord, that he might be glorified.​
 

glorydaz

Well-known member
The Spirit never entered into Jesus? Why do you believe that?

According to the bible he did, Jesus was full of the Spirit.

UH, the ENTIRE FULNESS OF THE GODHEAD to be exact.

Colossians 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.​

Which is why He had no need for the Holy Spirit to do more than anoint (come upon) Him for his ministry as the Messiah here on earth.
 

marhig

Well-known member
UH, the ENTIRE FULNESS OF THE GODHEAD to be exact.

Colossians 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.​

Which is why He had no need for the Holy Spirit to do more than anoint (come upon) Him for his ministry as the Messiah here on earth.

He was full of the Holy Spirit, thus the Holy Spirit was within him.

Btw, where does it say on the bible that the Godhead means the trinity?
 

Bright Raven

Well-known member
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Ask yourself just what the power was that he got in Acts 10;38.

Did he not also receive the Holy Spirit?

Why would the son of God need a body to dwell in as told in Heb 10:5?

Jesus was not born as the Christ, he became the Christ when he was anointed with the logos.

Your blind JR, you can not see the trees because of the forest.

Keypurr always ignores scripture.

Luke 2:11 King James Version (KJV)

11 For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord.
 

keypurr

Well-known member
Keypurr always ignores scripture.

Luke 2:11 King James Version (KJV)

11 For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord.

President Kennedy was born in Boston but he was not born as the President. Luke was written many years after his birth my friend.


Sent from my iPad using TOL
 

JudgeRightly

裁判官が正しく判断する
Staff member
Administrator
Super Moderator
Gold Subscriber

keypurr

Well-known member
Mark 10:17-18 (AKJV/PCE)
(10:17) ¶ And when he was gone forth into the way, there came one running, and kneeled to him, and asked him, Good Master, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life? (10:18) And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? [there is] none good but one, [that is], God.

I'll bet that according to keypurrism, this was Jesus saying that He was not good.

You lose. Christ was controlled by the God that sent him. He spoke the words for his Father.


Sent from my iPad using TOL
 

keypurr

Well-known member
Jesus was FROM HEAVEN and he was born the anointed.

Jesus even gave the Holy Spirit to Elizabeth and John while Jesus was still in his mother's womb.

Jesus was not from heaven, but the logos in him was. The logos is the true son sent to become flesh.


Sent from my iPad using TOL
 

JudgeRightly

裁判官が正しく判断する
Staff member
Administrator
Super Moderator
Gold Subscriber
I disagree he was Christ at birth.

Then you go against scripture, and your teaching is not biblical, therefore you are a heretic, and antichrist.

And he was not a savior until he died on the cross. He was the Lamb of God, not God.

Keypurr, none of what you say comes from Scripture. It's all made up in your head.

Stick to what scripture clearly says, you heretic.
 
Top