ECT Great Commission

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This coming from someone who thinks NT writers re-prophesied OT prophecies.
Liars always like to put words in other peoples mouthes.

Confirming that prophecies will be fulfilled is not equal to "re-prophesying".

There are a number of times in scripture where MULTIPLE prophets proclaim the SAME events. Is this re-prophesying?

You are truly clueless and incapable of having a discussion with anyone.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Confirming that prophecies will be fulfilled is not equal to "re-prophesying".

No NT writer quoted an OT prophecy with the purpose of the prophecy having a future fulfillment.

Over and over again in the NT, Jesus and many others quote OT prophecies to show they have been fulfilled.

There are a number of times in scripture where MULTIPLE prophets proclaim the SAME events. Is this re-prophesying?

NT writers quoting OT prophecies isn't the same thing multiple OT prophets giving the same prophecy.

You are truly clueless and incapable of having a discussion with anyone.

NT writers did not quote OT prophecies because they were still yet to be fulfilled.
 

Lazy afternoon

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Liars always like to put words in other peoples mouthes.

Confirming that prophecies will be fulfilled is not equal to "re-prophesying".

There are a number of times in scripture where MULTIPLE prophets proclaim the SAME events. Is this re-prophesying?

You are truly clueless and incapable of having a discussion with anyone.


This is how you should have made your post---

Confirming that prophecies will be fulfilled is not equal to "re-prophesying".

There are a number of times in scripture where MULTIPLE prophets proclaim the SAME events. Is this re-prophesying?

LA
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
Confirming that prophecies will be fulfilled is not equal to "re-prophesying".

When NT writers quoted OT prophecies verbatim, it was to show that the OT prophecies were fulfilled and/or being fulfilled.

Confirming that an OT prophecy would be fulfilled is not the same thing as quoting it because it was fulfilled.

For example: Jesus said the following:

(Matt 24:15) “So when you see standing in the holy place ‘the abomination that causes desolation,’ spoken of through the prophet Daniel—let the reader understand

Jesus told His audience that Daniel's prophecy would be fulfilled in the future when they saw standing in the holy place the abomination that causes desolation.

Notice Jesus didn't re-quote Daniel's prophecy verbatim. Jesus made it clear the prophecy still had a future fulfillment.

This language is nothing like what is found in Hebrews when the writer of Hebrews quotes Jer 31.
 

tetelestai

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER

Er, no.

Why don't you try explaining Matt 10:23:

(Matt 10:23 KJV) But when they persecute you in this city, flee ye into another: for verily I say unto you, Ye shall not have gone over the cities of Israel, till the Son of man be come.

Give it your best shot?
 
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