ECT Great Commission
- Thread starter SaulToPaul 2
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SaulToPaul 2
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Yes, the LORD told him to go teach all nations in Matthew 28:19 (KJV).
Yet they did not do it.
Tet cannot put it together that the LORD raised up the apostle of the Gentiles in Acts 9 and changed things for Peter.
Either that, or he is purposely deceptive, which is possible.
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Indeed, many like him ignore (or worse) the fact that Acts 10 comes after Acts 9.
Not so Lord! I even tacked on extra showing it wasn't about food but about the dispensation of grace and the gentiles. It was something they were not doing prior to then because it was out of order. It was hidden in God, not searchable in scripture. It was called "unsearchable" by Paul to be specific.
You are as bad as Obama and Hillary on this one. And Loretta Lynch.
Because it had to go to the Jew first
Even Paul went to the Jew first, at first
(Rom 1:16) ... first to the Jew, then to the Gentile.
Yes they did.
They were told to stay in Jerusalem until Pentecost.
Then after Pentecost, they went unto the world.
God sent Paul to the Jew first, and then the pagan Gentiles.
Paul preached the same gospel that Peter preached, except Peter preached mostly to men born under the law, and Paul preached it mostly to pagan gentiles not born under the law.
This is always a sign you are losing an argument. Anytime someone disagrees with your Hyper-Dispensationalism, you accuse of them of purposely lying, and/or purposely being deceptive.
It was something they were doing that the Pharisees made them do.
(Mark 7:8) You have let go of the commands of God and are holding on to human traditions."
It was a "human tradition" for a Jew not to enter the house of a Gentile in the days of Peter. You won't find it in the law of Moses.
In the OT the Israelites were told to be a light to the Gentiles.
I asked you to show us where in the OT Israelites were forbidden from entering a Gentile's house?
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Come on tet. You are such to double minded man.
YOU said that the New Covenant started at the CROSS and that is WHERE the distinction between Jew and Gentiles ended.
Make up your double mind.
The distinction did end at the cross.
However, the gospel went to the Jew first for many years after the cross.
Even Paul preached the gospel to the Jews first.
Somehow it's really hard for you guys to understand the overlap of the covenants from 30AD to 70AD.
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Tet, Tet, Tet..... always the double minded man.
There is NO overlap of covenants. The NEW replaces the OLD and BOTH of those are between God and Israel.
BTW, Romans 1:16 is NOT Jew and Gentile, but Jew and Greek.
Rom 1:16 KJV For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
How in the wide, wide world can BOTH the Old Covenant and the New Covenant be be in effect AT THE SAME TIME?
That is just plain idiotic and double minded.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
Yes there was.
The writer of Hebrews said the following shortly before 70AD:
(Heb 8:13) By calling this covenant "new," he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and outdated will soon disappear.
Also, if you understood the typology of David's tent in the OT, you would understand the overlap.
Heb 8:13
As of Matt 10, the Disciples had no idea Christ Jesus would die, be resurrected, spend 40 days with them, and then tell them He would return again.
I don't think you are taking that into consideration.
SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
What difference does it make regarding what the LORD said?
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I've come to the conclusion that you are triple minded (or maybe more).
You are SO selective about which scripture you will believe and which you throw out.
Heb 8:8-12 KJV For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah: (9) Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord. (10) For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people: (11) And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.(12) For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.
So you really think that "they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest" is taking place today (or even when Hebrews was written)?
The reason the writer of Hebrews quoted Jer 31 was to show that the prophecy was fulfilled.
It's mind boggling to me that you guys can't understand that the only reason NT writers quoted OT prophecies was to show that the prophecies were being fulfilled and/or fulfilled in the first century.
Somehow, you guys think the NT writers were "re-prophesying" OT prophecies.
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In this case, the writer is reaffirming that it will fulfilled, not that it was.
So I ask AGAIN: Does EVERYONE KNOW THE LORD and NOT need to be taught "every man his neighbor"?
Heb 8:11 KJV And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.
It must have happened in 70 AD, I'll bet.
Nope
NT writers didn't reaffirm OT prophecies.
The only time NT writers quoted OT prophecies was because they were fulfilled and/or being fulfilled.
Fulfilled.
It's not my fault you don't understand it.
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I'm going to try this at work.
Boss: Did you get all of those task completed?
Me: Yes, the are all fulfilled. You know, spiritually.
(1 Thess 4:9) Now about your love for one another we do not need to write to you, for you yourselves have been taught by God to love each other.
How did God teach them to love each other?